Welcome to the seventh part of Target
2020 Prelims series. So far, we have seen more than 300 topics with reference
to six months from July 2019 to December 2019. This video presents you 55
important topics that represent the current affairs of January 2020. All
these topics will be discussed in MCQ format for better understanding and also
to reflect the Civil Services Preliminary Examination. These topics
have been sourced from current affairs sources such as The Hindu newspaper, Business
Standard, etc.. and information for these topics have been presented to you from
authentic and government sources like Government Gazette, Press Information
Bureau, Reports of various ministries, etc.

If you enjoy the content,
if you like the video, click the LIKE button, Comment and share it among your friends
and those who are in need of such resources. Now, let us move on to the
first question. What is Starlink mission, sometimes seen in news a near-earth
asteroid mission by NASA a satellite constellation development project by
SpaceX to deploy the world's most advanced broadband internet system an
upgrade of the Large Hadron Collider officer a network of stratospheric
balloons designed to bring Internet connectivity to rural and remote
communities worldwide see option a it corresponds to a mission of NASA wherein
the spacecraft will travel to a near-earth asteroid Bennu
and it aims to bring a small sample of this asteroid back to earth for studying
purposes this spacecraft is called as osiris-rex and the mission is osiris-rex
mission it is the first mission of United States to bring asteroid sample
to earth this mission launched in 2016 is expected to bring the sample to Earth
in 2023 option C corresponds to hi lumi project which is to be commissioned by
the year 2027 this project is related to increasing the performance of large
hadron collider of sir by increasing luminosity high luminosity high Lumi
project CERN is a European Organization for Nuclear Research we discussed about
this project in detail in a Dober 2019 video which is a part of this
problems 2020 series option B corresponds to loon mission alone is a
subsidiary company of alphabet we heard about alphabet in 2015 when Google was
restructure now coming to this new mission in this project they aim to
provide Internet and mobile network coverage to answer and underserved
communities they are going to achieve this by redesigning essential components
of cell tower and placing them in a balloon which will carry them to an
altitude of around 20 kilometers above the earth so by having a network of
balloons this project aims to expand the internet and mobile network access and
it also says that it can even provide quick coverage to a location that is
affected by natural disasters so the correct answer for this question is
option B a satellite constellation development project by SpaceX to deploy
the world's most advanced broadband internet system see SpaceX is a private
space company that is founded in 2002 by Elon Musk it designs manufactures and
launches advanced rockets and spacecraft since 2019 this company is using its
experience in building rockets and spacecraft so as to deploy world's most
advanced broadband internet system the objective of the mission is to provide
fast and reliable internet in locations where now internet access is unreliable
expensive or completely unavailable this they are going to achieve by launching
batches of satellites to form a satellite constellation in space in a
single launch a set of 60 satellites will be deployed at an altitude of 290
kilometer initially and from here the satellites will be raised to an altitude
of 550 kilometer using the onboard thrusters and during this phase of
flight the satellites are closely clustered which will look like a
satellite constellation in space how you are seeing it in this picture now this
image is nothing but is still taken from a video captured by a satellite tracker
in the Netherlands on May 24 2019 SpaceX launched the first part of
Starlin mission series it launched first set of 60 satellites in a single launch
so the plan of this mission is to provide advanced broadband internet
system to remote locations across the well right now it is targeting its
initial service the northern United States in Canada in 2020 and it plans to
have a neo global coverage by the end of next year that is 2021 it was a news in
January because the third and fourth launch of this mission was done in
January 2020 the fifth series was launched in February sixth was launched
in March the seventh batch of 60 satellites was launched very recently on
22nd April we can get such questions on foreign missions or programs or projects
earlier in 2016 ups leap prelims that question was asked regarding GTL 10 that
is greased lightning 10 which is an electric plane with 10 engines
you know tested by NASA so in this manner that could be a question on
Starlin mission or any of the missions that we have just now discuss correct
answer option B now let's move on to next question with reference to
Convention on the conservation of migratory species of wild animals
consider the following statements four statements are given which of the
statements given above are correct first statement it is an environmental treaty
under the aegis of United Nations Environment Programme it aims to protect
terrestrial aquatic and avian migratory species throughout their ranges it is
the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species
their habitats and migration routes India is a party to this convention so
this convention CMS convention it was frequently in news in the month of
January and February because for the first time India has hosted the
conference of parties of CMS convention this was 13th GOP that was held in
Gandhinagar in Gujarat in February 2020 so this convention is a UN convention it
is an environmental treaty of United Nations under the aegis of United
Nations Environment Programme it is also called as born convention because the
text of this convention was negotiated in the year 1979 in a place called Bonn
in Germany the specialty of this convention is that
induced legal foundation to console not only terrestrial migratory species but
also aquatic and avian migratory species throughout their range where
conservation is to be achieved by in national coordination so this convention
it brings together the states through which migratory animals pass and also
the range states of migratory species the definition for range and range state
is given here for your reference and the speciality of this convention as stated
by United Nations is that it is the only global convention specializing in the
conservation of migratory species their habitats and migration codes and there
are two appendices in this convention when it comes to cites convention there
are three apprentices here there are only two openings appendix one lists
those migratory species that are threatened with extinction strict
protection is prescribed for species and reproduce one the wave states were asked
to conserve and restore the places where these species live then also to mitigate
the obstacles to migration not social control other factors that might
endanger an appendix one species then those migratory species that need
benefits from international cooperation or that would significantly benefit from
international cooperation they are listed in Appendix two of the convention
in other words we can say that these are migratory species that are not under the
threat of extinction and as per this convention one migratory species may be
listed in both their indices if the circumstances demand so and for
the purpose of conservation mitigating the hurdles and challenges for migration
and for various other purposes of this convention the range states are
encouraged to conclude global or regional agreements by this convention
so in all these aspects this CMS convention it acts as a framework
convention the agreements between the countries may range from legally binding
3ds or to less formal instruments like memoranda of understanding and these
agreements they can be adapted to the requirements of particular regions these
are the provisions which are unique feature of this Convention on the
conservation of migratory species of wild animals see this convention entered
into force on 1st November 1983 and as of first number 2019 the convention the
same as convention had 130 parties 129 countries and one
organization that is European Union and since 1983 India is also a state party
to this convention the Secretariat of this convention is located in Bonn in
Germany and there is also a scientific council this provides advice to
conference of parties on scientific matters see Conference of party CoV it
is the principal decision-making organ of this convention it meets once in
every three years this is important so far there have been 13 meetings of Co
peace the first Co P was held in there 1985 and the recent Co P Co P 13 was
held in February 20 20 at Gandhi Nagar in India and in there has been
designated as the president of Co P for next three years as we told everybody
the 13th the Co P is special because it is the first Co P of CMS convention that
has been hosted in our country now the most important outcome for India because
of this 13th GOP is that India's proposal to include three species in
Appendix 1 was unanimously accepted and accordingly it was done these are great
Indian bustard Asian elephant and Bengal florican we know that Asian elephants
are very important they help in regeneration of forests and grasslands
by dispersing seeds whereas the great Indian bustard it acts as crucial
indicator of grasslands ecosystem we also know that elephants our national
heritage animal in India and all these three species in our country they are
legally accorded highest protection under scaling one of Wildlife Protection
Act of 1972 the organizational structure of the CMS is given here for your
reference now come to the question while absorbing the options you can easily say
that first statement is correct because it is given as correct statement in all
the options so let us shift our focus to second statement it is also correct we
should not be diverted by seeing the term wild animals in the title of the
convention the convention aims to protect era still migratory species
aquatic and avian migratory species as well hear the term animals is used in
the title you know because even if you see avian species birds they are also
part of my lair Kingdom now let's come to fourth
statement India has a party to this convention this is correct
India's a party since the year 1983 so we have just confirmed that 1 2 & 4 are
correct you see which option says these three statements are correct there is
only one option option D that states 1 2 & 4 are correct so correct answer for
this question is option D 1 2 3 & 4 so third statement is also correct it is
the only global convention that specializes in conservation of migratory
species so this statement is a textual example to tell us whenever we see
superlatives like only we should not immediately assume that the statement is
wrong sometimes in some cases the statement will be correct as in this
case so it's important to keep such unique facts in mind so the correct
answer for this question is option B 1 2 3 & 4 now it's more – next question
this question is with reference to scheme of fund for up gradation and
regeneration of traditional industries three statements are there which of the
statements given above are correct first statement the scheme main messages to
organize the traditional industries and artisans into clusters to make them
competitive and provide support for their long-term sustainability and
economy of scale the scheme covers three types of interventions namely soft
interventions hard interventions and thematic interventions a
non-governmental organization with expertise to undertake cluster
development can be an implementing agency under the scheme see the scheme
of fun for operation and regeneration of traditional industries was launched in
2005 2006 by Ministry of micro small and medium enterprises of Kornet of India
see it aims to organize traditional industries and artisans into clusters
and under the scheme support will be provided for the long-term
sustainability and sustained employment of artisans and here when we say
traditional industry it refers to an activity that leads to production of
marketable products by using locally available raw material skills and
indigenous technology and traditional industry cluster it refers to a job
difficult concentration of sizable number of artisans or micro enterprise
suppliers of raw materials traders service providers and members in this
traditional industry cluster they produce process and service similar
types of products and they face common opportunities and common threats
traditional industries are broadly categorized into cárdenas frsky based
industries and related industries there is one provision with respect to the
geographical distribution of clusters throughout the country under the scheme
which is at least 10% of the clusters they shall be located in northeastern
region Jammu and Kashmir and Hill States and under the scheme there are three
types of clusters one is heritage cluster the major clusters then mini
clusters in heritage cluster we can see more than thousand artisans up to 2,500
then 500 2000 artisans can be in major cluster when the number of artisans in a
cluster is up to 500 these clusters are called as mini clusters this team it
also aims to improve or enhance the marketability of products produced by
such clusters by providing support for new products supporting in design
intervention and also an improved packaging and the scheme also aims to
tap ecommerce as a major marketing channel of the products now one more
object is to improve the skill and capabilities of traditional artisans
through training and exposure reasons the scheme also focuses on strengthening
the cluster governance systems with active participation of stakeholders
here when we say stakeholders it refers to artisans micro enterprises suppliers
of raw materials traders service providers etc one of the main support
mechanism of clusters is that it will help these artisans or these
stakeholders to handle the emerging challenges and the emerging
opportunities and to respond to them in a coherent manner under the scheme
financial assistance is given to implementing agencies to undertake three
types of interventions these interventions are called as soft
interventions hard interventions and thematic interventions they have been
given here for your reference the financial assistance provided for any
specific project shall be subject to a maximum of 8 crore this maximum of 8
crore is for heritage class four major cluster there is a maximum
limit of three crore for mini cluster maximum limit of one and a half crore
these limits may be upgraded in the future by the government so who all can
seek financial assistance under the scheme in other words who all can be
implementing agencies under the scheme you should know that non-governmental
organisations institutions of central government and state governments private
sector corporates and corporate social responsibility foundations panchayati
raj institutions with expertise to undertake cluster development there can
become implementing agency and they can seek financial assistance under the
scheme for the welfare for cluster development of traditional industries
and artisans during the budget speech for the financially of 2019-20
the finance minister said that more common facility centres would be set up
under this scheme to generating sustain the employment opportunities for the
artisans here we can see that common facility centers is one of the hard
interventions under the scheme the minister also stated that this scheme
will focus three sectors bamboo honey and cardi clusters and in the last
financial year there was also a target to set up 100 new clusters so as to
ensure joining of 50,000 more artisans into this economic value chain or to
facilitate development under the scheme so these information now let's come to
the question first statement is correct and it is the prime objective of the
scheme you can eliminate option B the second statement is correct there are
three types of interventions soft hard and thematic interventions third
statement is also correct a non-governmental organization having
expertise to undertake cluster development can be an implementing
agency under the scheme correct answer option D one two and three now let's
move on to next question this question is with reference to a tell puja Yojana
three statements have been given which of the statements given above are
correct it is a central sector scheme the scheme is to be implemented for a
three year period from twenty Twenty twenty one to twenty twenty two twenty
three one of the components is incentivizing the states for
achievements in improved groundwater management
practices Seattle gue Juliana it is also called as a pencil it was in news in
January 2020 as it was launched in the last week of December 2019 on the birth
anniversary of former prime minister shriyak tell be very watchful on the
same day the Prime Minister also named the rotom tunnel as at Delta C this
Rockton tunnel it connects Manali in Himachal Pradesh
with lay in the union territory of Larnaca so in this context let us see
few important facts with reference to a tell jal scheme cebu gel or Bhoomi gel
refers to underground water and this scheme is formulated to address
criticality or critical state of groundwater resources in our country the
scheme aims to improve groundwater management in priority areas through
community participation so when we say priority areas as of now a total of 78
districts in seven states have been prioritized and this seems to be
implemented for a term of five year period from twenty twenty twenty one to
twenty twenty four twenty five so it seeks to promote Poncelet groundwater
management it also will promote behavioral change
in the use of water the primary focus on demand-side
management that is to the community there will be a call to conserve water
and also to avoid wastage of water so as to reduce demand for groundwater and
this scheme has two components one is to strengthen institutional arrangements
available for sustainable groundwater management in the States in this
component groundwater monitoring networks water user associations these
institutional arrangements will be strengthened and there will also be
capacity-building in the second component States will be incentivized
based on their performance in groundwater management practices these
practices include data dissemination preparation of water security plans and
implementing management interventions with convergence of various schemes and
also adopting demand-side management practices the total outlay for the
scheme is rupees 6,000 crore 50% will be in the form of loan from world bank and
remaining 50% will be funded by the central government
regular budgetary support and the burden of repaying loan received from World
Bank will also be taken by this Center so the important fact about the shuttle
moodily organized that it is a central sector scheme meaning that states need
not share financial burden for this scheme so coming to this question first
statement is correct eliminate option B and option B now you
have to confirm whether statement 2 is correct or not to arrive at the correct
answer statement tools incorrect because it is to be implemented for a five-year
period so the correct answer is option a1 and 3-1 now you should not confuse
with the object yourself Gulf sectio beyond of jail g1 mission when we study
at albuja lucha giles check thea beyond is a time bomb
mission mode water conservation program last year it was held in two phases
first phase from june to september and second phase was from october to normal
it's a water conservation campaign coming to gel Jeevan mission it is a
centrally sponsored scheme one of the objectives is to provide functional
household tap connection to every rural household by the Year 2024 then we also
have national water mission recently it was also news as it organized a workshop
on rainwater harvesting and artificial recharge structures this workshop is
titled as catch the rain where it falls rainwater harvesting and artificial
recharge structures for water conservation so we have given you the
objectives of national water initial under the national action plan for
climate change for a reference so the correct answer option a one and three
only now let's move on to next question this question is with reference to
national infrastructure pipeline consider the following statements
regarding the national infrastructure pipeline three statements are given
which of the statements given above are correct
it aims to invest more than rupees hundred lakh Road in infrastructure both
economic and social and a national infrastructure pipeline investment can
be made in projects under construction proposed greenfield projects brownfield
projects and projects at the conceptualization stage the total
capital expenditure a very an AP is shared between Center and States on 50
is 250 basis C according to a report of task force in Department of
affairs of Ministry of Finance India needs to spend about 1.4 trillion u.s.
dollars or about rupees hundred lakh crore on infrastructure if we have to
achieve five trillion u.s.

Dollars of GDP by 2020 for 2025 last year that is
in 2019 this task force was set up or a constituted under the chairmanship of
secretary of Department of Economic Affairs the objective was to drop a
national infrastructure pipeline and accordingly this task force has come up
with a pipeline see when we say national infrastructure pipeline it is an
investment plan for a period of six years from financially or 2019-20 to
financial year 20 24 25 the total project capital expenditure and
infrastructure sectors in India during these years is projected to be around
rupees 102 lakh crore these are going to be invested on more than 6500 projects
across various sectors however emphasis will be given through
safe drinking water access to clean and affordable energy healthcare for all
modern railway stations airports bus terminals and world-class educational
institutions and this national infrastructure pipeline it is also
called as infrastructure vision 2025 and in addition to achieving the target of 5
trillion u.s.

Dollar economy by 2025 this pipeline of infrastructure vision
it also aims to facilitate reforms in regulation and also an administration of
public infrastructure services these reforms shall be generic and also
sectoral and it shall be asked for the best practices followed in the globe
then this pipeline aims to push India up in global rankings when it comes to
public infrastructure the respect to examination perspective it should note
that this pipeline it includes all projects including those under
construction proposed greenfield projects
brownfield projects and even those projects that are still at the
conceptualization stage and investments here are going to be made for both
economic infrastructure and also social infrastructure when we say economic
infrastructure this means investment is to be made in row
railways power telecom civil aviation ministry of new and renewable energy
steel commerce tourism defense production like that when we say social
infrastructure this refers to school education higher education sports
agriculture health water resources drinking water Housing and Urban Affairs
etc amap states that offer 100% of the total
capital expenditure 80% goes through roads urban and housing the railways
power and irrigation we can observe that close to nineteen point six four lakh
crores ought to be given for road sector there is only one point five six lakh
crores together ought to be given for the
entire education sector here it includes both school and higher education
well the document says that emphasis will be given to healthcare for all you
can see that the allocation in lakh roads for healthcare is one point six
nine lakh crores the next important thing is the funding button under this
pipeline see this jointly funded by three players centre states and also the
private sector centre and states will contribute 39% each for the total
capital expenditure the remaining 22 percentage is said to be contributed by
private sector this is as per the plan we have to see how private sector will
able to contribute this much money for this pipeline in the coming times
because of various issues faced in the economy now let's come to the question
it aims to invest more than rupees 100 lakh crore in infrastructure both
economic and social this statement is correct so we can eliminate options B
and options D because they do not say that the first statement is correct now
you have to just confirm whether the second statement is correct or not under
any P investment can be made in projects under construction proposed meaningful
projects and wrong field projects and projects at the conceptualization stage
the statement is correct so the correct answer for this question is option C 1
and 2 1 D third statement is incorrect because the functioning pattern among
center States and private sector is as 39% 39% and 22 percent respectively now
let's move on to next question which of the following or components of rushed we
are organizing an umbrella scheme in limited by Union Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare resfriado unity health ministers cancer patients fund health
ministers discretionary grant scheme for financial assistance for patients
suffering from specified rare diseases see roster ero unity society was set up
in the year 1997 with initial contribution of about 5 crore rupees
made by Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare at that time the
objective was to provide financial assistance to patients source to give
the medical treatment at any super speciality government hospitals such
financial assistance is to be provided to patients living below poverty line
and if they are suffering from major life-threatening diseases and as it was
a society it had a managing committee in August 2018 the managing committee of
this society decided to close the society with effect from 1st January
2019 so with effect from 1st January 2019 the functions of this Ram society
was given to the Department of Health and Family Welfare of Ministry of Health
and Family Welfare so after this a new umbrella scheme of Rashtriya Ragini Dee
was formulated by the Union Ministry under this scheme financial assistance
is given for poor patients to receive treatment at government hospitals when
we say poor patients has informed elderly patients belonging to families
living below poverty line in their appropriate states and union territories
here applications for financial assistance has to be submitted the
submission has to be made to the treating hospitals with supporting
documents like income certificate ration card etc the application has to be
recommended by treating doctor and medical superintend of the particular
hospital and on receipt of these applications financial assistance will
be approved within a period of one month here financial assistance of up to 15
lakh is provided for eligible patients in the form of one-time grant this
one-time grant will be forwarded to medical superintend of the government
hospital where the treatment is being received and there are also revolving
funds under this program that are set up in number of government hospitals these
revolving funds are set up source to speed up the financial assistance
provided to needy patients so therefore powers
I've been delegated to medical superintend or director of the
government hospitals so as to utilize funds up to file act
for eligible patients in every case from this revolving fund so one point to note
here is under this umbrella scheme funds are not released to states or union
territories rather the funds are given to the medical superintend of the
hospital's where the eligible patients are receiving treatment most important
part of the scheme is that it has three components one is Rashtriya virginity
under which financial assistance is provided for patients suffering from
life-threatening diseases and the next component is health ministers cancer
patients fund here the financial assistance is provided to patients
suffering from cancer and the third component is scheme for providing
financial assistance to patients suffering from specified rare diseases
one of the specified diseases include lysosomal storage disorders in early
stages for which enzyme replacement therapy is not available and we have to
also know that any life-saving procedure or any unspecified major illness or
treatment or intervention if not covered under any of the components of this
scheme and if recommended by technical committee of this program it could be
considered for financial assistance so coming to this question help ministers
discretionary grant is not a component under the scheme so the correct answer
is option C one two and four so what do we mean by health ministers
discretionary grant under this grant a maximum amount of one lakh twenty five
thousand is provided to patients whose annual family income is not more than
only twenty five thousand this remote is given as a grant to meet part of the
expenditure on hospitalization or treatment received by the eligible
beneficiaries in government hospitals so correct answer option C now let's move
on to next question this question is with reference to citizenship Amendment
Act 2019 any eligible person belonging to Hindu Sikh Buddhist Jain Parsi or
Christian community from Afghanistan Bangladesh or Pakistan who entered into
India or not before the 31st day of December 2015
shall not be treated as illegal migrant the special provisions of citizenship
for above-mentioned eligible
persons is also applicable to the tribal areas of Assam Meghalaya Mizoram or
Tripura as included in the sixth schedule to the Constitution
we know that the citizenship Amendment Act 2019 they received the assent of the
president on 12th December 2019 and in January there were lot of protest
against this legislation therefore for exams this year we may expect a question
on citizenship in general or the question could be specific to this
citizenship Amendment Act of 2019 last year prelims there was a question on the
provisions of maternity benefit Amendment Act of 2017 so we may expect a
question in this manner from CA C CA at 2019 deals with to set off individuals
or to set of persons onerous persons who have come to India from three countries
belonging to six religions secondly deals with OC a card holders for Wu CA
card holders it inserted a provision for canceling their OC a car registration it
said that central government may by order cancel the registration of OC a
car if such card holder has violated any of the provisions of Citizenship Act
1955 or if violated any of the provisions of any other law specified by
the central government now for persons belonging to these six religions and who
have come from Pakistan Afghanistan and Bangladesh first they shall not be
treated as illegal migrants this is because as per Section six one of
Citizenship Act of 1950 why there is one criterion for the application to acquire
Indian citizenship by naturalization that is at the time of application the
person should not be a illegal migrant now secondly this Amendment Act it
inserted six and six capital B into the principal act of
citizenship at nineteen fifty five section 6 B deals with citizenship for
the set of individuals who came to India from these three countries but this
section is not applicable to tribal area of Assam Meghalaya Mizoram or three pura
is included in the schedule to the Constitution and it is also not
applicable to the areas covered under the inner line notified under benka
instant frontier regulation of 1873 now in this map you can find Assam Meghalaya
Tripura and Mizoram arranged in anti-clockwise direction so it's a
geography based to remember that in the tribal areas of these states section 6 B
of CAA is not applicable now with respect to ILP we know that right now it
is enforcing for northeastern states what are those states are not simple
dish its southern neighbor Nagaland the Nagaland southern neighbor monaco then
Manipur southern neighbor miss Ora in this way you can remember ILP states
using geography then the CA 2019 also relaxed qualification of aggregate
period of residence for the person's work comes from the three countries so
as to acquire citizenship through naturalization for these persons that we
get period of residence required is not less than five years while this
qualification in general for others is not less than eleven years therefore CA
2019 fast-track citizenship acquiring process for persons belonging to six
religions from Pakistan Bangladesh and Afghanistan now coming to the question
here both the statements are incorrect first statement is incorrect because the
date should be 31st today of December 2014 the second statement is incorrect
because the special provisions for citizenship is not applicable to the
tribal areas of Assam Meghalaya Mizoram of Tripura is included in six video
correct answer option D neither one not to this question is with reference to
blue flag certification and relaxation of some provisions under CR is it
notification earlier in 2017 province that question was passed with reference
to AG mark certification mark so we may expect a question in this regard with
reference to blue flag certification in the context of blue flag certification
for beaches consider the following statements two statements have been
given they are asking which of the statements given above are not correct
it is a permanent certification awarded by foundation for environmental
education recently you're not of India relaxed the requirement of prior
clearance under CR is it not for some activities for all beaches to
attain the certification see this topic was in news in January because on 9th of
January 2020 the Union Ministry of Environment forests and climate chains
published an order this order relaxed some restrictions which were earlier
placed on coastal regulation zones in the relaxation is for the purpose of
blue flag certification so in this context let us see about blue flag
certification first and then we will see about the relaxation permitted in the
coastal regulation zones see blue flag certification is an internationally
recognized eco label that is awarded by a non-governmental environmental
organization this organization is foundation for environmental education
shortly called as fee this certification it is awarded to beaches marine us and
also to sustainable voting tourism operators this NGO it is headquartered
in Copenhagen in Denmark now the speciality of this certification
is that if beaches in one country earns this reputation it means that those
beaches are environment friendly those beaches are free from pollution and
those beaches are safe and perfect for tourists as a result it can contribute
to the local economy and the tourism sector of the particular country now for
a beach to get this certification it has to meet stringent standards around
thirty three standards in four areas now these four areas are important bonus
environmental education and information then environment management and
conservation then safety and services then berthing water quality these are
the four areas and at the global level Spain tops the list with more number of
beaches having such blue flag certification if you see in India no
beach has received this blue flag certification till now there have been
some news reports which have earlier stated that some beaches in India were
certified but these reports are false if you go to the official website of blue
flag global you can stand that no Indian beats have been so
far awarded this certification however government of India has
identified around 13 beaches to develop necessary infrastructure to earn this
certification these beaches were identified in consultation with
concerned the state government or unitary government but it was found that
to allow development of blue flag certification specific infrastructure
some relaxation of rules in coastal regulation zones where a point therefore
on 9th January 2020 only four identified beaches a set of activities can be
developed in coastal regulation zones and for these set of activities prior
clearance is not required under the provisions of CRS at notification or
Island protection zone notification or Island Coastal regulations or
notifications you can see some of the allowed activities include gray water
treatment plant solar power plant parking facilities outdoor play
equipment or fitness equipment and fencing preferably by vegetative fencing
so these activities and facilities they shall be permitted in coastal regulation
zones including Islands however keeping a minimum distance of 10 meters from
high tide line now come to the question first statement States it is a permanent
certification this statement is incorrect because blue flags are awarded
for only one season for next season or for each season these awards have to
be renewed by constantly living up to the standards or the stringent criteria
specified by the foundation for environmental education and second
statement States Government of India relaxed the requirement of prior
clearance for all beaches to attain this certification
now this statement is wrong it is not for all beaches but only for identified
beaches so a stone blue flux certification and not for all beaches so
in this question both the statements are incorrect question asked for not correct
statements both are not correct correct answer option C both 1 & 2 now let us
move on to next question now this question is with reference to
future skills prime initiative two statements have been given which of the
both statements are correct it aims to train schoolchildren in the age group of
six to fourteen years to equip them with learning skills required for better
performance in the future it is a joint initiative of NASSCOM and the Government
of India NASSCOM stands for National Association of software and service
companies so before seeing about future skills prime initiative let us see the
initiative called as future skills it is an initiative of NASSCOM in
collaboration with Ministry of Electronics and information technology
of Government of India this initiative of future skills was
announced by Prime Minister in February 2018 at Hyderabad the objective is to
risk in the IT industry workforce in which area are we going to risk kill
them in the area of emerging technologies and emerging job rules in
other words the technologies and job roles of the future and since the
hospital this initiative Ministry of electronics and IT and NASSCOM they have
worked with the IT industry to rescale or upskill more than 2 lakh IT employees
by using this future skills platform see this future skills platform is a digital
learning platform I present this platform offers rescaling or upscaling
of IT workforce in 10 emerging technologies across 70 new job roles and
also across new skills the 10 emerging technologies we can see artificial
intelligence blockchain big data analytics cyber security cloud computing
Internet of Things virtual reality 3d printing mobile technology and robotic
process automation so under this future skills platform NASSCOM aims to rescale
arab skin around 2 million professionals and potential employees and students in
the IT industry over a period of 5 years what happened recently in the third week
of December 2019 this future skills initiative it was expanded to future
skills prime as a result it was in news in December and also in Jan 20 24 the
future anyway it will be news hereafter as well the expansion of future skills
program was approved by ministry of electronics
and IT in December in this expanded program called prime here the goal is to
train for lack professionals in next three years and for this purpose
Government of India has announced investing rupees 436 crore on this
initiative over a period of next three years here Prime stands for program for
Reis killing or upscaling of IT manpower for employability so training under this
Prime initiative of future skills will be extended to three categories of
beneficiaries one is among IT industry professionals across different segments
then Higher Education students then government officials so when we say
future skills grant program it's the expanded future skills program and
NASSCOM states that this future skills Prime in the schedule is one of the
largest government digital skilling initiatives in the world now selling
features of this expanded initiative is highlighted here for your reference you
can find that this program plans to give a skill wallet where on certification an
individual will have the opportunity to receive up to rupees 12,000 as incentive
from the Government of India and each learner will also get a skills Passport
where the competencies or certifications acquired by the learner will get
accumulated now the common objective of both the future skills initiative and
the future skills prime initiative is to showcase
India as the global hub for talent development in emerging technologies and
also in globally recognized process structures and these programs they also
aim to build a future ready workforce and also to accelerate the technology
sector in achieving its skilling targets for the country now come to the question
so the first statement is incorrect whereas the second statement is correct
question asks for correct statement the correct answer is option B – only now
let us move on to next question consider the following statements with
reference to Island Development Agency two statements have been given which of
the statements given above are correct it develops world heritage activities in
small island developing States providing support for
nominations to the UNESCO World Heritage List and sustainable conservation and
management practices for sites already inscribed the agency was constituted at
the UN conference on Environment and development in the year 1992 which of
the statements given above are correct see island Development Agency is a
domestic initiative of Government of India central government established
this agency under the chairmanship of Minister of Home Office nithya have says
that India has surround 1382 offshore identified Islands so an
agency was needed for the purpose of sustainable development of these islands
with the participation from the local community therefore this agency Island
Development Agency was set up on June 1 of 2017 one of the main purposes of this
agency is to oversee the comprehensive development of islands now it was in
news in January 2020 because this agency held its sixth meeting in New Delhi in
jan 20 2015 4 stick development of island scheme was reviewed and note that
this agency has mandated mithya o to lead the holistic development of islands
program so in the oversight of this agency development plans for islands are
prepared and they are being implemented in phases
these plants they focus on job creation for Islanders mainly through two ways
tourism promotion export of seafood and coconut based products that are made in
the islands as of now these plants are an implementation in for islands of
Hanuman and micawber and five islands of lüt shalt weep in the next phase or in
the second phase suitable sites in 12 more islands of Andaman and Nicobar and
five more islands in lecture loop will be covered see this agency is also
involved in strengthening infrastructure support in identified islands this is
done by executing projects for improving add connectivity
sea connectivity and also digital connectivity there is a proposal to
construct airports in great Nicobar Island when it comes to an Thurman and
Nicobar Islands and in mini coil and or flux should weep so as to catalyze
development process in this region and in the front of digital
an activity it is reported that poor player and another seven islands in
Andaman and Nicobar they will be digitally connected through submarine
optical fiber cable by June 2020 so the island Development Agency and the
programs under it they seek to improve communication services so as to
facilitate setting up IT based enterprises and other MSME enterprises
in various Islands this is to be done with incentives from a scheme called as
luck should weep and Andaman and Nicobar Islands Industrial Development scheme
which was notified on 1st of January 2019 now come to the question the first
statement it corresponds to unesco world heritage program for small island
developing States this program was started in the year 2005 see small
island developing States they are spread over Caribbean Sea Pacific Ocean
Atlantic Ocean Indian Ocean Mediterranean Sea and also in South
China Sea these countries they were given special recognition in the UN
conference on Environment and development in Rio in 1992 particularly
in agenda 21 document there is a chapter 17 G this chapter deals with small
island development states these countries they face challenges like
growing population limited resources climate change sea level rise extreme
weather events etc and with respect to small island Development States we
should note that the year 2014 was declared by the United Nations General
Assembly as the International Year of small island development States the
second statement is also incorrect since both the statements are incorrect
question asks for correct statements the correct answer for this question is
option D neither one nor two now let's move on to
next question see this question two statements have been given they are
asking which of those statements are correct first statement nosocomial
transmission recorded in cove in nineteen refers to transmission of an
infection in hospital to a patient admitted for a reason other than the
transmitted infection the SARS outbreak of 2003 was much less infectious than
Cove in negative so this question is in relation to the experiences observed
in the present pandemic of covert ninety-three coronaviruses
they belong to a large family of viruses some of them cost illness in people in
some circulate among animals like camel scabs bats etc radley animal
coronaviruses they evolved and they jumped species to infect human beings
and once human beings are infected then the virus spreads among people and
coming to code 19 we are still uncertain about the precise animal origin of this
disease among the human beings coordinated infections they spread both
directly and indirectly when we say directly it refers to having direct
contact with a respiratory droplet of an infected individual and indirectly means
by having contact with contaminated object or contaminated surfaces where
the virus strain is present let's take this opportunity to also know about an
initiative called us GA s8 now they may use this term in exam they may ask the
term GA s8 is in news what it is and the options they may give it is a serious
Aidid navigation system like that see this this aid was in news in January as
China's submitted genome sequence data of SARS coronavirus to to this this aid
platform here just say it stands for Global Initiative on sharing all
influenza data platform it was launched in May 2008 it was initially supported
by US government however since 2010 Germany has become the official host of
this platform so as the name implies it promotes international sharing of all
influenza virus sequences human viruses and also various geographical species
specific data associated with avian viruses or other animal viruses so for
this purpose it also maintains a database called as ap flu database so by
having such an arrangement the objective is to help researchers to understand how
viruses evolve how they spread and how they become pandemics now the speciality
of this platform is it gives new recognition to the owner of the data
that was shared or uploaded and it also gives new recognition to the
intellectual property rights of the war of
particular medical data or virus data that was shoved into this platform to be
specific this design was actually a response to some of the earlier
available public domain our caves that were used to transfer such medical
information now coming to the question first statement is a would know so
Camille infection here nosocomial transmission or not so Camille infection
it refers to hospital acquired infection or transmission of a disease in a
hospital we can see such transmission among healthcare workers or among
patients who are admitted for other diseases it deals with the risk of
contracting a communicable disease from the hospital so it is in order to
minimize and to avoid such kind of transmission personal protective
equipment is mandated for healthcare workers and other workers who are
available in hospitals and other healthcare facilities that are
associated with kovat 90 coming to the second statement it says the Sark
outbreak of 2003 was much less infectious than over ninety the
statement is correct because though the SARS outbreak was more deadlier than
code 19 it was much less infectious than coding so the correct answer for this
question is option C both one and two are correct now let's move on to next
question this question is with respect to ecological flow in river Ganga and
it's tributaries it was in Newton January as some of the projects were
found to be non-compliant to the prescribed minimum environmental flows
now come to this question two statements have been given which of the statements
are correct some of the existing projects have been given a time period
of three years to ensure compliance of desired environmental flow norms the
mini and micro projects which do not alter the flow characteristics of the
river or stream significantly or exempted from the environmental flows
see earlier in October 2016 an order was notified in the government cassette this
order is called as river Ganga rejuvenation protection and management
authorities order of 2016 this order constituted an authority called as
national mission for clean Ganga for rejuvenation protection and management
of river Ganga basin one of the duties of this authority is to determine the
magnitude of ecological flow in river Ganga and its tributaries and this
ecological flows or environmental flows or reflows they are required to be
maintained at different points in different areas at all times with the
aim of ensuring water quality environmentally sustainable regeneration
and protection and management of river Ganga and its tributaries
so therefore in October 2018 national mission for clean Ganga published an
order in The Gazette this ordered prescribed minimum environmental flows
that have to be maintained in river Ganga and its tributaries in two
stretches one is upper ganga river basin stretch then the stretch of main stem of
river Ganga the upper Ganga river basin straits starts from originating glaciers
and through respect to confluences finally meeting it Deo Priok up to
Haridwar and the main stem of river Ganga stretches from Haridwar of
food-truck end to now interpolation and minimum flows were prescribed for these
two stretches throughout the year that is for all the months and these are
minimum environmental flows that should be maintained at locations downstream of
various structures or projects that divert river flows they might be
diverting water for various purposes like irrigation hydropower industrial or
other requirements but with the minimum flow requirement they have to allow a
certain proportion of water always one important development took place last
year in the principal order published in October 2018 earlier this order gave a
relaxation to existing projects that could not currently meet the norms of
environmental flows these projects were given a period of three years from the
date of issue of this order to comply with the minimum environmental flows
prescribed and honor that is they need not comply immediately but they have to
complete to this order by October 2021 what happened last year this relaxation
given in the principal order was amended the amended order mentioned that
existing projects that do not currently meet the norms of these environmental
flows they shall comply to the environmental flow norms before December
15 of 2019 so now come to the question so the first statement
incorrect this provision was earlier available in the principal order but it
was amended in September 2019 so now this motion is not their statement one
is incorrect second statement is correct these mini and micro projects if they do
not alter the flow characteristics they are exempted from the environmental
flows correct answer option B to only this question is with reference to
raised in our dialogue four statements have been given there asking which of
the statements given above are correct it is India's flagship geopolitical and
geostrategic conference it is held that biennial intervals the first edition of
raising a dialogue was held in 2016 the theme of the dialogue this year is 21 at
20 navigating the Alpha century series in a dialogue was in news in January as
the fifth edition took place in Jan 14 to 16 heat is India's flagship global
conference engaging with geopolitics and also geo-economics this dialogue is
committed to address most challenging issues faced by the global community the
speciality of this programme is it is a multi-stakeholder cross-sectoral
discussion platform it includes participation involvement of not only
state representatives but also participation of global leaders in
policy in business in media and also from civil society usually this
conference is held in New Delhi annually it is organized by Ministry of External
Affairs in collaboration with observer Research Foundation now the theme of the
fifth edition conducted this year is 21 at 20 navigating the Alpha century it's
like thinking about the 21st century in 2020 about how to navigate this alpha
century last year the theme was a world reorder new geometries fluid
partnerships uncertain outcomes and the theme of first edition of raising a
dialogue was Asia regional and global connectivity
sometimes they may ask team-based questions as well earlier in 2017
problems they have asked this question where we can find a statement including
theme of a particular conference they gave the theme of the conference in 2016
as the theme for the very first edition of the concert
so in that sense it is important for us to know themes of present and recent
years and also the themes of first edition of the event now in this context
let us also see one more important global dialogue called as shangri-la
dialogue see this called as Asia's premier defence summit so it is hosted
by an international think tank called us International Institute for Strategic
Studies this dialogue is annually held in Singapore usually in the month of May
or June with the support from the government of Singapore this year this
dialogue was scheduled to be held in the first week of June and Singapore however
because of coab in 19 the even has been cancelled named shangri-la is the name
of the hotel where this even this held no because of the complete or dominating
participation of state representatives defense ministers etc this shangri-la
dialogue it is also called as track1 interaction that is coordinated by a
track to organization track one refers to non mentor presentative track two
represents civil society non-government entities in this context if you see
raised in our dialogue it is track one point for diplomacy as it improves both
state representatives and leaders in policy business media and civil society
now the International Institute of Strategic Studies that host shangri-la
dialogue was founded in United Kingdom in 1958 with focus on nuclear deterrence
and arms control one of the very important publication of this Institute
is the military balance input there is one another strategic international
conference you might have heard news called as Munich Security Conference see
it is organized by a nonprofit organization called as Munich Security
Conference Foundation in February you might have seen in news that our
External Affairs Minister participating this year's Munich Security Conference
which is the 56th edition of such conference now coming to the question
first statement is correct second statement is wrong it is not held
at biennial intervals since the first edition in 2016 it is being held
annually so eliminate option B third statement is correct and the fourth
statement is also correct therefore the correct answer is option D one three and
four now let's move on to next question this question is with reference to
Shanghai Cooperation Organization four statements have been given they are
asking which of the statements given ammo are correct this topic was in news
in January 2020 as it was reported that in this year India will be hosting
Council of Heads of Government of SCO member countries first statement it is
an intergovernmental international organisation with its Secretariat based
in Shanghai it comprises eight member states with latest editions being India
and Pakistan it has observer status in United Nations
General Assembly Russian and Chinese languages are the official working
languages of SC Bo now coming to SCO see it is a permanent intergovernmental
international organization creation of this organization was announced in the
year 2001 by six countries five countries were already part of Shanghai
five mechanism and the other country was was bukistan when we say shanghai fight
it is a political association of five countries which is based on confidence
building in the border area of five countries then agreement on mutual
reduction of armed forces in the border area shanghai includes Russia China
Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan and with the accession of Uzbekistan into
Shanghai in the year 2001 sometimes I was renamed as Shanghai Cooperation
Organization in the next year in June 2002 the charter of a sieve over signed
this was signed at the st.

Petersburg Summit of Heads of State of SEO and it
came into force in September 2003 so at that time there were six members in this
organization in the Astana summit in the year 2017 India and Pakistan were given
full membership in this organization Astana is in Kazakhstan it is also
called as North Sudan so right now the total membership is eight countries it
also has four observer States Afghanistan Iran Belarus and Mongolia
and SEO has observer status in the United Nations General Assembly and it
has been the case since the year 2005 and in the present year that is from
july 2019 to july 2020 the sco presidency is with russia
federación and since the inception SEO has mainly focused on regional security
issues particularly in fight against regional terrorism a religious extremism
and also ethnic separatism internal policy of this organization is based on
principles of which will trust benefit in equality whereas its external policy
is stated to be based on the principles of non-alignment non targeting of any
third country and also openness it has two permanent bodies SEO Secretariat it
is based in Beijing just because the name has Shanghai you should not
consider that its Secretariat is in Shanghai then the Executive Committee of
rats that is the regional anteater of the structure is a tasket in Uzbekistan
and there are only two official working languages of this organization they are
Russian and Chinese now come to this question first statement is incorrect
because it states its Secretariat is based in Shanghai it is based in Beijing
in Beijing we can also see the headquarters of Asian infrastructure
investment bank once you find that the first statement is incorrect
you can easily arrive at the correct answer option C 2 3 & 4 there is also a
Business Council of Shanghai Cooperation Organization it was founded in 2006 it
is a non-governmental entity or an independent institution that is
headquartered in Moscow now let us move on to next question consider the
following Russia Armenia kazahstan Kyrgyzstan Uzbekistan Ukraine which of
the countries given Obol or member states of Eurasian Economic Union see
Eurasian Economic Union is the International Organization for regional
economic integration among countries located in northern Eurasia it was
established by treaty on Eurasian Economic Union this treaty was signed by
three countries tellers cassava Stan and Russian Federation this
treaty was signed in May 2014 and it came into force on 1st January 2015 if
you see on very next day on seconds and 2015 Armenia joined this union and in
the same year in the month of August chrysten also joined so these are the
five member countries part of this Eurasian Economic
actually it was formed in response to economic and political influence of
European Union and other Western countries so if you see the member
nations of this Eurasian Economic Union it includes three SCO members and
Armenia and Belarus the three SCO members are Russia and to case
revista and cassava Stan to be very simple this Eurasian Economic Union it
provides for free movement of goods services capital and labor among these
five member states so coming to this question if you know that Russia is part
of this Union you can eliminate option B and we should note that Ukraine is not
part of this Eurasian Economic Union so we can eliminate option D a correct
answer for this question is option C now let's move on to next question this
question is with reference to homers Peace Initiative meeting which was held
in January 2020 consider the following statements with reference to whole mus
Peace Initiative it is an initiative led by United States of America Strait of
Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Aden which of the WHO
statements are correct see this Hamas peace initiative was initially proposed
by President of Iran in last year in the month of September so this initiative is
organized and led by ehre not United States of America as a part of this
initiative a meeting was arranged in January 2020 India along with China
woman and Afghanistan did participate in this meeting that is why it was in use
the mentioned objective of this initiative is to stabilize Strait of
Hormuz so what Iran seeks under this initiative is regional cooperation chose
to keep Strait of Hormuz secure it seeks cooperation among the countries in the
region which are Iraq Saudi Arabia Bahrain Qatar Kuwait
United Arab Emirates Oman and also mmm so it in this context it is important
for us to know and brief about this Strait of Hormuz and also its importance
well most of the aspirins and viewers do well know about this Strait of Hormuz
for some of our viewers the facts related to Strait of Hormuz could be a
new thing see it is a waterway it connects Persian
Gulf with Gulf of Oman not Gulf of Aden and this straight it separates Iran and
Oman here you can see Iran and in this side you can see United Arab Emirates
but what about the top of this horn is it a place of United Arab Emirates the
answer is no because this is a peninsula called as mooss anthem Peninsula which
is a territory of Oman not United Arab Emirates and the Strait of Hormuz is
important because it is gateway for significant amount of global oil
supplies 30% of Seabourn traded crude oil it passes through Strait of Hormuz
every single day so why India calls for peace in this trade one of the reasons
is around 67 percent of India's oil imports and around 50 percent of India's
liquefied natural gas imports comes through this Strait so stability peace
and security of this trait is of utmost importance for our country now let us
come to the question first statement is incorrect because it is an initiative
led by Iran second statement is incorrect because Strait of Hormuz
connects Persian dealt with Gulf of Oman if you see there is Strait of
bab-el-mandeb it is this trait that connects a Red Sea with Gulf of Aden
well Strait of Hormuz connects Persian Gulf of Oman so here we find that both
the statements are incorrect therefore the correct answer is option D neither
one nor two this question is with reference to agreement on persons of
Indian origin in Silla 1964 consider the following statements that women allows
for according citizenship in Sri Lanka saloon for some of the persons of Indian
origin well some PA woes are to be the battery into India it was signed during
the prime ministership of long bahadur shastri which of the statements given
above are correct si si loan is the former name of Sri
Lanka and this agreement on persons of Indian origin in Ceylon was signed
between the then Prime Minister of India Shastri and the then Prime Minister of
Silla Seri majo Bandaranaike on 30th October 1964 therefore this part is also
called us Sirimavo Bandaranaike Lal Bahadur at our cinema or Shastri pact
now in the context of Sri Lanka when we say persons of Indian origin most of
them are historically from the present day
Tamil Nadu these persons are actually descendants of workers who were taken by
the British to saloon in the nineteenth century and the early 20th century they
were taken to work in the hill plantations of tea coffee and rubber in
Sri Lanka so when salaam became independent as
Sinhalese cultural national government was formed as a result many persons of
indian origin were not given citizenship or they were rendered stateless so in
order to resolve the plight of these individuals an agreement was signed at
the level of prime ministers of both the nations an objective of this agreement
is that all persons of Indian origin in Salam who have not been recognized
either as citizens of India or citizens of Silla they should become citizens of
a the country either they should become citizen of India or they should become
citizen of Silla they should not be rendered stateless that is the very
important point of this agreement and at the time of agreement in 1964 the
persons of Indian origin coming under this category they were numbered at
around 9 lakh 75,000 so at this agreement of 1964 it was mentioned that
India would accept repatriation of five lakh twenty five thousand of these
persons and their children the agreement calls the children as the natural
increase in this number and salon agreed to grant citizenship to three lakh of
these persons and their children and all these things are to be carried out
within a 15 year period from the date of this Agreement the status of remaining 1
lakh 50,000 persons they were to be determined by a separate agreement in
the future this agreement is what we call as a driven between India and Sri
Lanka or cinema o Indra and the pact which was signed in the year 1974 and as
per this 1974 agreement 75,000 that is 50% of the remain
persons will be given citizenship in Sri Lanka and 50% will be repatriated to
India where they will be given Indian citizenship so overall if you see as per
Hindu Sri Lanka agreement of 1964 and 1974 India agreed to issue citizenship
of about 6 lakh persons whereas Sri Lanka agreed to issue citizenship of
about 3 lakh 75 thousand persons because of various issues and ethnic violence in
Sri Lanka reports say that the commitments under 1964 agreement were
only implemented in part in the angry period of 15 years some sources say that
by the year 1985 India granted citizenship to around 6 lakh persons
while Sri Lanka agreed to accept around 4.5 lat individuals with children as its
citizens these two agreements they were in news
with reference to centers a recent announcement made with reference to
National Population register and national register of Indian citizens it
was reported that some families who have become citizens in India after coming
from Sri Lanka these are persons of Indian origin reportedly they have lost
many documents in transit after they have come to India so they were
expressing fears about how they will be able to prove their citizenship which
they obtained legitimately in India when national register of Indian citizens is
to be carried out now coming to this question the first statement is correct
because part of persons of Indian origin they will be given citizenship in Sri
Lanka and part of them will be repatriated to India where they will be
given Indian citizenship second statement is also correct as it was
signed during the prime ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri Prime Minister
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in May 1964 this agreement was signed in October
1964 at that time mr.

Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Prime Minister
correct answer option see both 1 and 2 now let us move on to next question this
question is with reference to dedicated freight corridors in which of the
following state or States both the eastern and western dedicated freight
corridor pass to put the Pradesh Punjab Haryana
Bihar Rajasthan select the correct answer using the code given
see when we say dedicated freight corridors these are railway corridors
that are under construction in our country by Indian Railways they are
being constructed to enable smooth transport of cargoes there are two
corridors one is Western freight corridor and that is Eastern freight
corridor the Western freight corridor it covers a distance of one thousand five
hundred and four kilometer from Jawaharlal Nehru port trust in
Maharashtra to Dudley in utter police so between Maharashtra and you pee it
passes through three states Gujarat Rajasthan and Haryana some of the
important locations travels by this corridor in Gujarat that are Vadodara
Ahmedabad Palampur in Rajasthan Polara in Haryana River
these locations are important as we can expect a map based Fulham's question
with these locations they may ask us to arrange from north to south or from
south to north so the Western Corridor here it passes through five states
Maharashtra Gujarat Rajasthan Haryana and yupi this corridor will help in the
container transport requirements between the ports in Maharashtra Gujarat and the
northern hinterland now coming to East and dedicated freight corridor the
length of the route is more than that of Western dedicated freight corridor here
the length is thousand eight hundred and fifty six kilometre from Ludhiana in
Punjab to dan coonley in West Bengal it has two segments one double track
segment between Dan Cooney in West Bengal to gorge on the base and there a
single track segments of around 441 flow meter between Ludhiana and Punjab – good
job in utter Pradesh it passes through the dream of that for this zone now
there is one state in which both the corridors pass through that is the fish
there is also one under the state that is Haryana in which both these corridors
posture the eastern corridor passes through six states Punjab Haryana U P B
her sharpened and the extremism West Bengal on one side this corner is
largely expected to help in coal and steel traffic there is one special note
here the Western dedicated freight corridor is proposed to join the eastern
dedicated freight corridor in Uttar Pradesh at the location corners
that three so both the corridors in this DFC project is being implemented by a
special purpose vehicle created in October 2006 this SPV is called as
dedicated freight corridor Corporation of India Limited it is a holy one to
public sector undertaking of Ministry of Railways the recently Government of
India has reported that the two corridors are targeted to be completed
in phases by December 2021 so in this question the
correct answer should contain one and three option B is the right answer now
let's move on to next question this question is with reference to pradhan
mantri rasca prod Siham yojana two statements are given which of the
statements are correct the scheme provides financial support for eligible
employees for being rendered unemployed it is targeted for employees earning
wages less than or equal to rupees fifteen thousand per month see roseguard
probes often means encouraging employment so this scheme is designed to
incentivize employers for generation of new employment so first statement is
incorrect so usually employer will contribute a
total of 12% financial contribution for an employee part of this payment goes
for employee pension scheme and part of this contribution goes for Employees
Provident Fund so what happens under this scheme see in this scheme central
government will be paying the employers contribution which are made towards
employee pension scheme and Employees Provident Fund for new employees and
because government is contributing the finance for new employees the employers
incentivized to create new employment opportunities and this incentive is
available for the first three years of employment of new employee this scheme
is being implemented by Ministry of Labour and employment since August 2016
therefore the scheme has a dual benefit on one hand the employer will be
incentivized for increasing employment base for
workers in the establishment and it is in these establishments because of new
job creation a large number of workers will come and join and they will find
jobs a direct benefit is that these workers will have access to Social
Security so organized sector this is because all
establishments that are registered with Employees Provident Fund organization
they will be eligible to away these benefits from the government actually
earlier in the same scheme Government of India was paying only employee pension
scheme contribution of the employer for a new employee but this was amended with
epoch from 1st April 2018 so now the contribution is for both employee
pension scheme and also for Employees Provident Fund now coming to eligibility
criteria as we saw already all establishments that are registered with
Employees Provident Fund organization they can apply for availing benefits but
there are some conditions one of them is that the establishments the company they
should have labour identification number which are allotted under sraw su vida
Porter it is this labour identification number that serves as primary reference
number for all communication to be made under the scheme and the eligible
employer must have added new employees to the establishment and this new
employee should have other seeded Universal our phone number the intake
system is online and the other based with no human interface in the
implementation of the scheme another important point is that this scheme is
for new employees who are earning wages less than or equal to rupees 50 thousand
per month even if the new employee changes her job to another new
establishment then that establishment can avail the scheme benefits for the
remaining balance period in the 3 years now coming to the statements first
statement is incorrect because it is the objective of at lbfft Kalyan you Jenna
which is also a scheme under Ministry of Labour and employment statement 2 is
correct so the answer for this question is option B 2 only now let's move on to
next question this question is with reference to
national strategy for financial inclusion 2019 to 2024 2 statements have
been given which of the statements given above are correct first statement it
aims to make financial services available accessible and affordable to
all the citizens in a safe and transparent manner and to adopt a
multi-stakeholder approach for sustainable financial inclusion it was
prepared by DT IO with an aim to make India
a five trillion dollar economy by 2024 2025 see this national strategy of
Financial Inclusion it is not a document prepared by an ETA oh it is prepared by
a reso Bank of India with the support of Financial Inclusion Advisory Committee
this Financial Inclusion advisory committee was constituted by RBI to lead
their efforts with respect to greater financial inclusion so it's a Advisory
Committee with respect to matters on Financial Inclusion and the national
strategy document has been developed by RBI also based on inputs and solutions
given by the central government and also other financial sector regulators say
Sebby irda and pension fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India main
takeaway from this national strategy document are the key pillars of this
strategy for financial inclusion the base is that we have to leverage
technology and we have to adopt multi-stakeholder approach for
sustainable Financial Inclusion having this cess base we need six pillars one
is universal access to financial services then we have to provide basic
set of financial services then there should be access to livelihood and skill
development then there must be financial literacy financial education and one of
the most important pillar which is customer protection and grievance
redressal and finally effective coordination if we have these pillars
then we can make financial services not only available and accessible but also
affordable to all citizens in a safe and transparent manner to support inclusive
growth resilient multi-stakeholder LED growth
so here statement two is incorrect correct answer option a11 now let's move
on to next question in this question two statements have been given which of the
statements given of our correct EQ bear is the core banking solution of the
State Bank of India which provides a single current account for all its
branches across the country EB crear is an e option platform which provides
single window access to information on properties up for auction by the public
sector banks first let's see in brief about EQ bare seats the platform of
banking regulator trousseau Bank of India not State Bank of India it
provides single current account for each bank across the
country and these banks can access this account anywhere anytime and this is the
core banking solution of our B then we say core banking solution it is a
network of branches of a particular bank this helps banks to offer multitude of
customer centric services from a single location and these services can be given
on a 24/7 basis and because of this platform customers of a bank can access
their accounts from any branch anywhere irrespective of the physical location of
opening their accounts and as of now almost all branches of commercial banks
including regional rural banks have been brought into this EQ bear core banking
platform of RBA now let's see briefly about this EB Craig C it's a platform
for each option crea means purchase or to buy or to hire in
Hindi so it's an e option platform that enables online auction by public sector
banks this initiative was launched by Ministry of Finance this platform gives
links to all public sector bank ee option sites and there is also property
search feature so it gives a single window access to information with
respect to what are the properties that erupted for e option comparison of
similar properties and it also provides access to information about videos and
photographs of uploaded properties so here the first statement is incorrect
because it is a core banking solution of our B second statement is correct
correct answer option B to only now let's move on to next question this
question is with reference to Carbon Disclosure Project CDP is a
not-for-profit charity that runs the global disclosure system for investors
companies cities states and regions to manage their environmental impacts as
per the CDP in the annual report 2019 India is the first developing economy
with the maximum number of companies committing to science-based targets to
reduce greenhouse gas emissions which of the statements given above are correct
C this common disclosure project it is a not-for-profit charity institution that
is based in United Kingdom it runs a global disclosure
system to manage the environmental impacts of companies investor-state
cities and regions its purpose is to prevent dangerous climate change and
related environmental damage so for this subjecting it helps investors companies
and regions so as to take required actions by measuring and understanding
the environmental impact of their presence in the world this project is
now having regional offices in local partners across 50 countries we can see
companies cities and regions from more than 90 countries participating in this
project on an annual basis and last year it has released CDP india annual report
2019 actually this report surveys the commitments made by companies in a
particular country to science-based targets and it evaluates the climate
change risk that these companies are exposed to targets here are called US
science-based targets a target adopted by company will be called a
science-based target if these targets to reduce greenhouse gas emissions are in
line with the goals of Paris agreement that is these targets should aim to
limit global warming well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial
levels and it should pursue a force to limit the global warming to even further
by 1.5 degrees Celsius the main takeaway from this 2019 report was that India
secured through the spot in this report and India has become the first
developing economy with maximum number of companies committing to science-based
targets so by 2019 38 companies have committed to these science-based targets
it was seen as a significant improvement from around 25 companies committing to
targets in the year 2018 the first part is taken by United States the parameter
here is the number of companies so newest there are more companies
committing to science-based targets this is followed by Japan UK France and then
we come to the picture so in this question both the statements are correct
therefore the correct answer is option C both 1 and 2 now let's move on to next
question global climate risk index is published by
the answer for this question is option C German watch know that German watch is
also part of releasing climate change performance index along with new climate
Institute and Climate Action Network now when we come to map across it releases
climate change vulnerability index United Nations Environment Program it
releases emission gap report and global environment outlook the global climate
risk index 2020 was released in December 2019 hence it was the news in December
2019 and also in Jan 20 2006 it analyzes impacts of extreme weather events and
associated socio-economic data it analyzes to what extent countries and
regions were affected by weather related loss events or extreme weather events
like storms floods heat waves etc the most recent data available in this 2020
report is for the year 2080 it has also analyzed and reported for the past 20
years from 1999 to 2018 as well it is an annual publication and the recent 2020
risk index is 50th edition of this analysis the purpose of the analysis is
to provide enough climate risk information at various forums at the
international level with respect to climate policy debates they're using for
indicators for the purposes of ranking number of deaths number of bits per 1
lakh inhabitants absolute losses or sum of losses in u.s.

Dollars in purchasing
power parity then losses per unit GDP in percentage in other words losses in
terms of GDP for the year 2018 the most affected countries in the world
first comes Japan then Philippines then Germany we are in the fourth position
that is india's the truth the most affected country in 2018 out of 181
countries and territories assessed by this German watch in 2017 India was 14th
most affected country due to climate risks with respect to depth talk in the
year 2018 India has recorded the highest death toll because of climate risk
two major reasons one because of floods in the state of Kerala during 2018 more
so then because of heat waves report states that since 1992 around 25,000
Indians have died because of heat waves so the correct answer for this question
is option C German now it's more – next question this
question is with reference to integrated road accident database two statements
are given it is an internet-based central accident database management
system it is developed by National Highways Authority of India which of the
statements given above are correct see this topic was in news in January 2020
because on 13th January Union Ministry of Road Transport and highways launched
an IT tool called this integrated road accident database it's a central
accident database management system to help in analyzing causes of road crashes
causes of road accidents so as to help devising safety interventions to reduce
such accidents in the future according to world road statistics which is
annually released by international road Federation India has recorded the
highest number of deaths in road accidents in the year 2018 in the world
this is followed by China and United States as per Indian government more
than 1.5 lakh people have lost their lives in road crashes in their 2018 so
for a long time a central interrelated road accident database was felt
necessary and recently such an IT tool was developed by Indian Institute of
Technology Madras and the project using this tool will be implemented by
national informatics centre and this project involving integrated road
accident database is supported by world bank and the total project cost is
around 250 growth what the system does is it helps to develop and implement
data let road safety interventions so as to reduce road accidents in future
having an accident database is also the first towards achieving scientific road
safety management in this database management system will be first launched
in six states that have highest fatalities in terms of road accident
related death these states are Karnataka multiple – Maharashtra Rajasthan Tamil
Nadu Andhra Pradesh one speciality about this database system is that it can
collect data across the country on different
so folks be it national having state highways city roads etc it is a
internet-based IT solution so therefore various stakeholders agencies such as
Public Works Department police they can feed details of information related to
road accidents from their perspectives this will include details like accident
investigation road engineering the condition of the vehicle involved in the
crash etc so all these data that are collected
will be analyzed by a team at IIT Madras who will suggest corrective measures in
road design if accident is caused because of road design so these kind of
data lead interventions we can take using this database I will see briefly
with respect to national informatics centre say it's a three way of science
and tech institution under matey Ministry of Electronics and information
technology established way back in 1976 and it has rich experience in providing
information and communication technology support and a governance support to the
government it has a network called as ma seen it it is using this network it has
institutional linkages with all ministries and departments of central
government and also with state governments and union territories and
also with district administrations in our country so coming to this question
first statement is correct second statement is wrong because it is
developed by IIT Madras not National Highways Authority of India correct
answer option a one only now it's more – next question in the light of recent
development – national investigation agency act 2008 and ma consider the
following statements three statements are there they ma functions are central
counterterrorism law enforcement agency in India both central and state
governments can designate special codes for the trial of scheduled
offences the amendment enhances the mas jurisdiction to investigate scheduled
offences against Indians and against Indian interests beyond India which of
the statements given above are correct see we know that national investigation
agency act 2008 it constitutes national investigation agency the purposes to
investigate and to prosecute offences effect sovereignty of India security and
integrity of India security of state that effect friendly relations with
foreign States and other scheduled defenses when we say scheduled offenses
these are offenses that are categorized as offenses and of those laws that are
mentioned in the schedule to the National investigation Act of 2008 see
national investigation agency functions US central counterterrorism law
enforcement agency in our country it aims to create deterrence among existing
terrorist groups and individuals and also more potential terrorist groups and
individuals and it also aims to develop as a storehouse of all terrorist related
information the superintendence of this agency
it is vested with the central government and the Act actually impose both Center
and States to designate special codes to try the scheduled offenses now prior to
the 2019 amendment that mentioned that both Center and States can constitute
special codes now after amendment the Act means both the center and States can
designate Court of Session as special courts to try this commune differences
what happened in the amendment is it enhanced the jurisdiction of this agency
to investigate schedule differences beyond India that is even if the
offenses are committed outside India against Indian citizens or against
Indian interests then naa can investigate and the amendment also
enabled naa to investigate offenses related to human trafficking counterfeit
currency you know manufacture or sale of
prohibited arms cyber terrorism and also offenses under explosive Substances Act
of nineteen outdate now these offenses were added to the schedule of Na act by
remanent now one more information now with reference to the judgments given by
designated special codes with respect to scheduled differences the judgment can
be appealed at the level of High Court now come to the question if you observe
the given options you can easily understand the first statement is
correct so we have to just verify whether second and third statements are
correct or not second statement is correct because both central and state
governments can designate special codes to be specific they can
designate coat obsession as special coats now third statement is also
correct because it enhances mas jurisdiction to investigate schedule
differences committed outside India against Indians and Indian entities
correct answer option B one two and three now let's move on to next question
this question is with reference to project three plan project tree plan
sometimes Sina news is related to new technology for soft landing on the moon
to reduce the plastic waste in nature safe referee of crew module in case of
any exigency before launch in human spaceflight program introduction of
African cheetah in Indian forest and this project is launched by khadi and
village industries Commission they have launched this project as part of the
commitment to sweat shebar at the beyond when we say we plan it stands for
reducing plastic in nature in this project what they do is plastic waste
will be collected then cleaned chopped beaten and they are treated for softness
then what they will do is they will mix paper raw material or cotton rags
well 80% then 20% will be treated plastic in this ratio of 80 is to 20 the
plastic will be mixed with paper raw material and using this mixture plastic
mixed carry bags are made so the correct answer for this question is option B to
reduce plastic wastes in nature now coming to khadi and village industries
permission C this is a statutory body or a statutory Commission because it is
established under Section 4 of a statute called as guardian village industries
Commission Act of 1956 before this commission that was all India khadi and
village industries board and since April 1957 this Commission took or the works
of the All India Cardian religion is peaceful this commission is an effects
organization under Ministry of micro small and medium enterprises it aims for
the development of Cardian village industries in rural areas in
coordination with agencies that are engaged in rural development there are
three broad objectives social objective of providing employment economic
objective of producing saleable articles then it has a wider objective
create self-reliance among poor and to build a strong rural community spirit so
the correct answer here is option B now it's more to next question see this
question recently NASA's transiting exoplanet survey satellite has
discovered toi 700d it is a double asteroid system in the solar system a
sun-like star in another galaxy an exoplanet in the habitable zone of
its star an interstellar object found in our solar system the correct answer for
this question is option C an exoplanet in the habitable zone of its star C in
the month of January 2020 NASA announced a discovery that its test mission has
made test stamps for transiting exoplanet survey satellite and this
whiskery it is about a system a star system called as dy 700 this system has
a small cool star that is named as T y 700 this system is located over hundred
light-years away and it is found in a constellation called as dorado miss a
constellations these are group of stars that forms a particular shape in the sky
and this star TOA 700 was said to be 40% of mass and size of Sun and about half
of the surface temperature of Sun this star has three planets they are named
sto a 700 B C and D note that these planets are tidally locked to their
style when we say tidally locked or tidal locking it means that an orbiting
astronomical body always has the same face towards the object it dis orbitty
here these stars they always have the same face towards this star called us
TOI 700 of these three planets tya 700 D is very important this is because it is
the only planet in this star system that is available in the habitable zone of
this t y 700 star and since it is just 20% larger than Earth it is also
generalized as an earth-sized planet and it receives around 80 percent of the
energy that Sun provides to our earth and it is also the outermost
plan in this star system when we say
habitable zone it refers to that the area around the star it is not too hot
and not too cold therefore there might be conditions to
allow the presence of liquid water on the surface of the planet and the
habitable zone of a star is also called as Goldilocks zone now if we come to
this test mission called as transiting exoplanet survey satellite now this word
transiting exoplanet is very important as this mission uses transit photometry
in the study of exoplanets this test mission was designed and launched
specifically to find earth sized planets or exoplanets that are orbiting nearby
stars it was launched recently in the year 2018 in a SpaceX rocket so it is an
all-skate transit survey that can identify planets of all sizes and
because of this role it is also called as nasa's planet hunter and see this
mission finds exoplanets when they periodically block the part of light
from their host stars these are events that are called as transits these are
events that gives an understanding that there is a star and a planet is
revolving this star and when the repetitions and periodicity are observed
scientists can say more information on these planets and the star this method
of studying about exoplanets is called as transit photometry now for this
question the correct answer is option C now it's more – next question this
question is with reference to snow it's snow X sometimes seen in news is related
to a program to console the snow leopard population in the high altitude
Himalayas an Arctic research expedition using the research vessel Polarstern
securing livelihoods conservation sustainable use and restoration of high
rains Himalayan ecosystems a program launched by NASA Terra steel hydrology
program to address important gaps in snow remote sensing knowledge the
correct answer for this question is option B option here corresponds to
project snow leopard this project was launched in January 2009 to conserve the
smaller bird species the project is currently implemented in this
graphical range of this species option B corresponds to mosaic expedition the
full formas multidisciplinary drifting absolutely for the study of Arctic
climate C India's not a partner institution in this project though an
Indian from Kerala State was owned among the researchers and this expedition was
recently knows as mr.

Eshton and then the only Indian among the researchers
have returned home now option C is the project titled as secure Himalayas it's
a project of Government of India and United Nations Development Programme in
high-altitude Himalayas see this project started in January 2017 and is scheduled
to end by December 2023 the main focus of this project is to eradicate poverty
in all its forms and dimensions among the local communities living in high
Himalayan ecosystems now let's come to know X C this is a campaign launched by
NASA it aims to understand how much water is contained in each winter
snowfall and how much water will be available if snow melts this assessment
is important because snow contains 40 percent to 95 percent it's air and snow
is important because melting of snow brings water to crops and it gives water
to people living in downstream and it also feeds it our service dams to
generate electricity and snow is important because it reflects up to 80
percent of sun's energy because of being white and thereby it gives coolness to
the planet so if you are losing snow it means that earth is absorbing more
sunlight that means it accelerates the global warming so keeping all these
things in mind NASA launched snow x-c it is a five-year program it is being
funded by NASA Tara Steele hydrology program the main objective is to address
most important gaps in the knowledge related to snow so at present under the
snow x program the auricle focus is proposed to be in north america though
NASA's overall target is to map global snow water in its future missions this
no X is to be carried out by using various aerial campaign
sire bond campaigns and also by various other instruments and through remote
sensing so the correct answer here is option B now let's move on to next
question consider the following wildlife
operations objective purpose save Kumud thunderstorm soft cool bill bill which
of the paths given a mower correctly matched a multi species operation by
Interpol to protect light turtles and tortoises to protect Tibetan antelope to
protect birds and cat species so this question is based on special operations
that were carried out by wildlife Crime Control Bureau with respect to offenses
against wildlife some of the special operations are directly conducted by
this Bureau some operations are coordinated by this wildlife Crime
Control Bureau now before we go on to the operations see wildlife crime
control Bureau is a statutory multidisciplinary body it is constituted
by central government and the Ministry of Environment forests and climate
change the purpose is to combat organized wildlife crime in our country
its headquarters is in New Delhi we are calling it as a statutory body because
it has been established under Section 38 capital value of Wildlife Protection Act
of 1972 there are several functions to important
functions one is to collect and analyze intelligence with respect to organized
wildlife criminal activities and it has to disseminate the collected
intelligence to state and other enforcement agencies so as to take
appropriate action then one more function to establish a centralized
wildlife crime databank now let's come to some of the important
operations carried out by this view here operation save Kumar was conducted in
December 2016 and January 2017 to focus on poaching transportation and illegal
trade of live turtles and tortoises the word kuma in Sanskrit it refers to top
poison turtle so deals with turtles and tortoises in February 2017 Interpol
launched an operation called as operation Thunderbird
this operation is a multinational operation for multiple species in India
wildlife Crime Control Bureau coordinated this operation and after
seeing the success of this operation Thunderbird Interpol launched another
operation called as Operation thunderstorm in the same year in October
2017 again this operation thunderstorms also a multi-species wildlife operation
in India coordinated by wildlife Crime Control Bureau now operation soft coal
he deals with illegal wildlife trade in Tibetan antelope Tibetan antelope is
also powerless shiru this operation was conducted in October 2018 to March 2019
operation bourbon it was conducted in number 27 t it is pertaining to illegal
trade in all birds and cat species cat species also include big cats and
because of various actions of wine left Crime Control Bureau in 2018 it was
awarded Asia environment enforcement awards by United Nations Environment
Programme so now coming to this question here we can find that save kuma is
incorrectly matched so options should not contain 1 & 2 is also incorrectly
matched so correct answer is option C 3 & 4 only now it's more – next question
this question is with reference to yada-yada virus recently a group of
researchers have discovered a virus called as yada-yada – in Australia which
of the following is correct regarding the virus they belong to the family of
corona viruses they usually circulate among animals and the infected animals
act as the vectors the virus strain has more than 95% similarity with the nipa
virus it is an alpha whereas discovered recently among mosquitoes this virus was
detected in mosquitoes in the state of Victoria in Australia in 2016 the disc
or E was confirmed recently see it is an out for worse in this
context it is important for us to know about alpha viruses
see these are viruses which belong to the family Toba every day they are small
single-stranded positive sense RNA viruses even chikungunya is also a
member of Alpha virus genus in this family dog every day most of the alpha
viruses they are transmitted by blood sucking arthropods typically
mosquitoes some of the alpha viruses they cause brain infections and in some
cases this also leads to deaths or fatalities for example we can say
diseases like eastern equine encephalitis venezuelan equine
encephalitis western equine encephalitis these are diseases associated with alpha
viruses which are threat for human beings
however yada-yada virus is reportedly not a threat for human beings the name
itself is kept to represent the you significant nature of this virus
yada-yada is also you know colloquially called as bla bla bla are some
statements of lesser importance so the correct answer for this question is it
is an alpha whereas discovered recently among mosquitoes now it's more to next
question it was one of NASA's four Great observatories designed to detect
infrared radiation after more than 16 years studying the universe in infrared
light its mission has come to an end the above description suits which of the
following even horizon telescope Spitzer Space Telescope Astros at Hubble Space
Telescope see the correct answer for this question is Spitzer Space Telescope see this Space
Telescope was in news in January 2020 for two important reasons one is that
this telescope helped to confirm detection of a star system by transiting
exoplanet survey satellite of NASA we saw that test it detected a star system
named TOI 700 where it also found an earth-sized planet in the habitable zone
of the star this detection by test was confirmed by the Spitzer Space Telescope
for this it was in use in first week of January in the last week of January 2020
NASA announced that the mission of spitzer space telescope has come to an
end see it was a space born observatory the goal of this telescope is to provide
unique infrared view of the universe and also to give information about regions
of space that are hidden from optical telescopes this Spitzer Space Telescope
was launched in August 2003 it is one of NASA's four Great observatories in fact
it is the final mission in these four observatories program what are the other
three observatories bonus Hubble visible light Space Telescope Chandra x-ray
Observatory then Compton gamma-ray Observatory now this program
demonstrated the use of different wavelengths of light to create a better
picture of the universe now let's see some important discoveries of spitzer
see it is the first telescope to see light from a planet that is from outside
our solar system it was also very useful tool in detecting exoplanets and also in
characterizing their atmospheres it is best known for detecting seven earth
sized planets in Trappist one system and we say Trappist – one system it is the
largest number of terrestrial planets that are found orbiting a single star so
what do we mean by terrestrial planners see these are earth-like planets that
are made up of rocks or metals with a hard surface in our solar system for
closest to planets to the Sun Mercury Venus Earth and Mars they are
terrestrial planets so when we say terrestrial planets these are planets
that are similar in structure and position with earth now come to the
question the correct answer for this question is option B see even horizontal
scope is an international collaboration to capture images of black holes an
Astros app is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength Space Observatory it
was launched in September 2015 it helps in simultaneous multi-wavelength
observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite it can
study celestial sources in x-ray band optical spectral band and also in UV
spectrum and at the same time the scientific objectives of this mission
has been highlighted here for a reference now let us move on to next
question this question is with reference to pradhan mantri Jeevan yojana two
statements are given the scheme aims to provide basic Civic amenities to improve
the quality of life for forests rulers the scheme is an initiative of Ministry
of tribal affairs which of the statements given above are correct cg1
it stands for jivin then vltava an annual fossil a
vishesh navara here Jai vinden means biofuel rata orang anu cool means
environment friendly fossil hashas means crop remains and Navarre means
prevention so it is a scheme for preventing crop residues from getting
wasted and instead using them for the production of biofuels which is
environment friendly in English the scheme is given as scheme for providing
financial support to integrated bioethanol projects using
lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock in their 2003
government launched ethanol blending in petrol program so as to blend ethanol in
petrol the program was launched to address environmental concerns because
of fossil fuel burning so as to provide revelation to farmers as crops play a
very important role in the production of ethanol and it will also help us to
reduce crude oil imports and thereby we can achieve savings in foreign exchange
under this ethanol blending of petrol program oil marketing companies they are
to blend up to 10% of ethanol in petrol but in order to meet 10% ethanol
blending target with the projected patrol demand
in 2021 2022 about 450 crore litres of ethanol will be required
now this 10% blending of ethanol and petrol was to be achieved by the earth
2022 but if you see for the year 2017 18 only
150 crore litres of ethanol was procured this means against the target of 10
percent the available ethanol will help us to achieve only 4.2 2% blending in
petrol presently if you see the target kept for 2018-19 was 225 were letters of
ethanol supply but by number 2019 the supply was only 180 crore litres we have
national policy of biofuels 2018 what it has to say with respect to ethanol
blending it states that in 2018 the ethanol blending percentage in petrol is
around 2% and biodiesel blending percentage in diesel is less than 0.1
percentage so what national policy of biofuels suggests is an indicated target
of 20% blending of ethanol and petrol and 5% of blending of biodiesel in
diesel to be achieved by the year 2030 so 10% of blending of ethanol and petrol
to be achieved by 2022 and 20% to be achieved by 2030 so there is a mismatch
between demand and supply of bioethanol so to bridge this supply gap ministry of
petroleum and natural gas came up with this predominantly g1 Yojana now the
schemes main purpose is to provide viability gap funding to second
generation bioethanol manufacturing projects so by giving this support more
bio ethanol will be manufactured or produced so as to meet the demand of bio
ethanol for blending in petrol when we say second-generation bioethanol it is
also called as advanced bio ethanol these are produced from agricultural
residues and byproducts organic wastes and it also produced from would be
grassy waste materials as feedstock and also from biodegradable fractions of
municipal and industrial waste so therefore 2g bio ethanol or second
generation by internal is defined by this schemas ethanol produced from
biomass and cellulosic materials such as wood waste
chiral and forestry residues grasses bagasse etc by gas is nothing but dry
pulpy residue that is left after the extraction of juice from sugarcane so
this is about second generation bioethanol and when we say first
generation or basic bio ethanol it is defined as ethanol produced from biomass
such as sugar containing materials like sugar cane sugar beet sweet sorghum etc
and it is also produced from starch containing minerals corn cassava rotten
potatoes algae etcetera so this is the difference between first generation bio
ethanol or basic bio ethanol against second generation by ethanol or advanced
biota the Government of India felt that in
order to meet the 10% blending target in petrol by 2022 the first generation bio
ethanol will not be sufficient to achieve this target so we need advanced
to bio ethanol for that this scheme is devised so using the fund in the scheme
they are going to support viability gap funding for 12 commercial projects and
10 demonstration projects the scheme is also aiming to increase research and
development in this area as well now whose the nodal agency or the
implementing agency for this scheme so it is Centre for high technology it is
the implementation agency for the skin it is a technical body under ministry of
petroleum and natural gas now we have highlighted the objectives of the scheme
here for a reference in addition to reducing import dependence reducing
greenhouse gas emissions addressing environment concerns the scheme also
aims to create rural and urban employment opportunities in 2g ethanol
projects it also aims to provide remunerative income for farmers who give
waste agriculture residues for the production of bio ethanol it also
contributes to sweat Sabaoth mission as it supports the aggregation of non-food
bio fuel feedstocks and it also aims to indigenous second generation biomass to
ethanol technologies in India now if you come to the question we can understand
that both the statements given here are wrong both the statements have been
given here to confuse you so as to create an association error with the
word va m2 forest or forest Villiers like that both the statements are
incorrect the correct answer is option B neither
one not in the context of Indian data relay
satellite system consider the following statements the relay satellites help the
ground stations to communicate with satellites in space relay satellites
launched in low-earth orbits do better coverage to satellites in geosynchronous
orbit is slow launched Indian data relay satellite system in 2014 to stay in
touch with all Indian satellites which of the statements given above are
correct see this topic was in news in January as
is ro announced that it is to launch this system in 2020 21 in this context
let us see what do we mean by a relay satellite and their importance in
communicating with space assets like space satellites or future human space
flight programs etc see one of the requirement of ground stations to
communicate with satellites is that a clear view or line-of-sight is required
when we do not have a clear view or line-of-sight of satellite then
communication between ground stations and the satellites become difficult
so to avoid such a situation a space agency needs to build communication
centers across the world it becomes an expensive job so to address this problem
relay satellites come into picture these are satellites mostly kept in
geosynchronous of geostationary orbits and they will always have a line of
sight with ground stations in India and these relay satellites they relay or
they handover the commands received from ground station to other satellites that
are not in line of sight with the ground stations sometime what happens is a
single relay satellite may not have a clear view with all the satellites for
it to communicate in such scenario multiple satellites called a relay
satellite system is used so here a relay satellite is similar to a relay race
where runners pass on the baton to the next runner to run the next leg of the
race a relay satellite also works in a similar manner as it passes information
from the ground station to the satellites in space and it also can
receive information from the satellites in space and can relate to ground
stations an example for relay satellite system would be tracking and data relay
satellite system of NASA and it has 10 satellites to communicate with the space
assets of NASA now note that we have not yet launched this India data relay
satellite system in January 2020 is ROH announced that it has started working on
this series and the plan is to place this system in geostationary orbit so as
to have a constant touch with Indian satellites especially those satellites
in no Adamas and we say low Earth orbit it
is an orbit around Earth with an altitude of above 160 kilometers from
the Earth's surface till 2,000 kilometers in the field of
space it is said that a data relay satellite in the geostationary orbit can
see a low altitude spacecraft for approximately half of an orbit in that
case if we have two such relay satellites if these two satellites are
spaced 180-degree apart in geostationary orbit then theoretically they can
provide continuous contact for any spacecraft in low-earth orbit as these
two satellites together we'll cover 360 degree of her orbit so we are going to
launch the system in 2020 21 the most important thing why we are going to
launch it in this year is because we need to send this to space before we try
giverny a mission because once we launch the venire mission ground stations have
to stay in touch with covenient spacecraft all the time if we could not
communicate then we need a relay system to help us to contact them so for that
purpose is first targeting to send first this India data relay satellite system
and then the Daniell mission now come to the question first statement the relay
satellites help the ground stations to communicate with satellites in space is
correct so we can eliminate options be an option see now you have to just
confirm whether any one of statements two or three are incorrect so as to
arrive at the correct answer C relay satellites launched in low-earth orbits
do better coverage to satellites in geosynchronous orbit this is not the
case this has to be in reverse relay satellites launched in geostationary
orbits give better coverage to satellites in low Earth orbits the
correct answer becomes option a because I can statement is incorrect the third
statement is also incorrect because we have not yet launched India data relay
satellite system we are going to launch it in this year or most probably by the
beginning of next year now let's move on to next question
consider the following statements with reference to Makran subduction zone this
subduction zone is also known on demand Nicobar sumatra island
subduction zone this subduction zone is due to the divergence of Arabian plate
from Eurasian Plate which of the statements given above are correct see
this zone was in news a scientist at Indian National Centre for oceanic
information services they stated that tsunamis of the ghost of Iran and
Pakistan could reach Indian shores and one of the two potential source regions
of earthquakes that may trigger tsunami is Makram subduction zone the other zone
being under one Nicobar Sumatra island subduction zone and for this reason in
quois has hosted a meeting of experts on probabilistic tsunami hazard assessment
for the ma current region seen quois stands for Indian National Center for
ocean information services established in 1999 as an autonomous body under
Ministry of Earth Sciences at Hyderabad it is a unit of Earth Science system
organization under this ministry that's why it is also called as s so in quois
the Mandate of this Center is to provide ocean information and advisory services
to society industry government agencies and also do scientific community the
information is to be based on continuous ocean observations well this is a
national system let us also see an international system called US Indian
Ocean tsunami warning and mitigation system this was established by
Intergovernmental oceanographic Commission of Venus Co it became
operational in 2013 it actually was established in response to the tragic
tsunami of December 2004 that led to more than 2 lakh deaths in several
countries bordering Indian Ocean it is funded by a trust fund of United Nations
Economic and Social commission for Asia and the Pacific now let's come to the
potential earthquake source regions you can see two potential source regions
here in this picture bonus Makran subduction zone then the other is
Indonesia subduction zone which is also called as under Mar Nicobar Sumatra
island subduction zone the Makran subduction zone it was poorly understood
because of lack of enough data to would the zone it is reported that
tsunami waves generated by an earthquake in the zone can reach the shores of
India Iran Oman Pakistan and other nearby countries within few minutes with
heights of several meters so therefore this zone it poses serious
challenges to existing tsunami warning systems we are calling it as a macron
subduction zone subduction zone means two plates are meeting each other where
convergence is taking place one plate goes below the other plate the denser
plate will go below the other plate the denser plate subducts below the other
plate here two plates are involved Arabian plate and eurasian plate
eurasian plate is a major plate Arabian plate is a minor plate the Arabian plate
being denser than the eurasian plate its subjects below are its subjects against
the eurasian plate because of the convergence activity the zone has become
a potential source for generation of earthquakes now let's come to Indonesia
subduction zone here Indo astral plate is subducted or moving down against
eurasian plate this zone is known for high magnitude earthquakes that can
trigger killer tsunami waves once in tsunami we witnessed on 26 December 2004
and the source of this earthquake is near sumatra island of indonesia so
better understanding of these subduction zones would help to enable better early
tsunami warning system for indian ocean now come to the question first statement
is incorrect because under more Nicobar Sumatra island subduction zone is the
name for Indonesia subduction zone second statement is also wrong because
in Makran subduction zone convergence of Arabian plate and Eurasian Plate is
taking place both the statements are incorrect question asks for correct
statements correct answer option D neither one not now let us move to next
question consider the following with reference to vanilla islands recently
seen in news it includes Seychelles Mauritius Maldives Madagascar and
Comoros they are situated in southwest region of Indian Ocean which of the
statements given above are cat this question was framed with reference
to operation vanilla launched by Government of India in January 2020 with
reference to devastating impacts of tropical cyclone Nia / Madagascar
this operation is humanitarian assistance operation provided by Indian
Navy to Madagascar it was reported that the cyclone has affected the lives of
more than 1 lakh people in the Indian Navy ship IRA what has been deployed in
the relief mission on Jan 26 to provide humanitarian assistance the operation
vanilla launched by India Navy is the first international response when it
comes to addressing humanitarian crisis in Madagascar with reference to tropical
cyclone see Madagascar is an island country in Indian Ocean region it is
situated off the southeast coast of Africa or it is situated in the
southwest region of Indian Ocean Tropic of Capricorn passes through mode of the
skull it is separated from African mainland by Mozambique Channel now
because of its location Madagascar and the islands surrounding Madagascar they
are exposed to periodic cyclones and droves it is said that Madagascar
gets hit by an average of 3 to 4 cyclones every year between the months
of November and April the operation Manila is said to be meeting with
India's version of saga in the Indian Ocean region Sadr stands for security
and growth for all in the region this concept was announced by Prime Minister
in 2015 during his visit to Mauritius and other Indian Ocean islands and Sagar
is the Indian mission for Indian Ocean now let's come to vanilla islands sea
there are six islands collectively called US vanilla islands these islands
have together launched a brand name for them or a marketing brand for them
because of a natural product natural flavoring substance which is
cooking ingredient vanilla these are islands such as Seychelles Mauritius
Madagascar Comoros along with two regions of France
these are Island regions of reunion and mayotte reunion and Mayotte Islands are
French overseas territories all these six islands are situated in southwest
Indian Ocean region these islands are important because of their strategic
location as they are situated on ceilings of
communication to Africa and of these vanilla islands Seychelles Mauritius
Madagascar and Comoros they are members of African Unity they are members of
Indian Ocean Commission and there are also members of Indian Ocean rim
Association and international solar Alliance see Indian Ocean Commission is
the only African regional organization that is composed entirely of islands
Comoros Reunion islands of France Madagascar Mauritius and sessions these
islands are particularly vulnerable to natural disasters so coming to the
question first statement is incorrect because it includes Maldives the second
statement is correct correct answer is option B – only now let's move on to
next question consider the following statements
regarding the proposed green credit scheme the scheme will allow private
agencies to grow plantations which can be purchased and handed over to the
government but forest land user agencies as a compensation for the divertor force
the green credit refers to the amount paid by the user agency for the
acquisition of forest land for the diversion to non forest users which of
the statements given above are correct see it's a proposed scheme if you see
the existing system that is based on the provisions of forest conservation Act of
1980 and forest conservation rules of 2003 a user agency that aims to divert a
forest land for non forest users has to fulfill three main criteria these are
criteria to acquire and divert to forest land to non forestry purposes like
mining one is that the user agency has to pay net present value of forest land
that is to be acquired for my use secondly the user agency has to purchase
an equal non forest land that is contiguous to forest land and the agency
has to hand over this non forest land to the government or State Forest
Department thirdly the user agency has to pay costs for compensatory
afforestation which is to be executed by the state forest department in the non
forest land given by the user agency and in this existing method of compensate
area forestation few challenges were faced one of them is
the use of agencies felt extremely difficult to acquire a non forest land
contiguous to a forest land that is bordering with the forest land
secondly the State Forest departments with their existing work pressure and
workload they were found to be inefficient in the functioning of
compensatory afforestation so also solution to these challenges a green
credit scheme has been proposed under the scheme a green area or a force like
environment or a plantation is developed by a private agency or even a village
community now the user agency who wants forest area for diverse into non forest
purposes has to purchase the certified green area and forward into the
state-owned or hand it over to the state government the ecosystem services of the
certified green area will be almost equal to the ecosystem services of the
forest land that is acquired for diversion this scheme is expected to
make compensatory afforestation much easier tasks it was the news in
January news report stated that Forest Advisory Committee has almost approved
the scheme for rollout see forest advisory committee is a statutory body
under Section three of forest Conservation Act of 1980 it comes under
the Union Ministry of Environment forests and climate change its objective
is to grant approval for using forest land for non forest purposes then it
also advises the central government on matters relation to forest conservation
so here the first statement is correct the steam will allow private agencies to
grow plantations that can be purchased and handed over to the government by
forest land user agencies as a compensation for the diverted force
second statement is incorrect because green credit refers to the amount spent
by the user agency for purchasing the certified green area not for purchasing
the forest that is to be diverted to not forest users so the correct answer here
is option a 1 1 B before moving on to next question let us also see 3
important terms green bonds European Green Deal green protocol and that
suited to a mission of care WA see any bond if used to raise money or
investment and if the raised money is used for climate change adaptation or
for renewable energy or to generate environmental benefits or for
environment friendly projects these bonds are called as green parts European
Green Deal is a roadmap committed by European Union so as to make the economy
of European Union sustainable this Green Deal it proposes to make the European
Union climate neutral by the year 2050 when we say climate neutral it refers
that by 2050 there should be zero net emissions of greenhouse gases in
European Union now coming to green protocol which is adopted under switch
it permission of qiyama it is essentially a set of measures if
followed will result into significant reduction of waste and the primary focus
is given to prevention of use of disposables and accelerating the use of
reusable alternatives it becomes part of switched to emission
is a technical support group in waste management center in government of gala
so some of the features of these protocols for example mitigating
quantity of waste grading of waste at the source of generation use of
recyclable material to the extent possible optimizing the use of reusable
materials eliminating all disposable materials from day to day life etc now
let's move on to next twister consider the following statements
regarding national space challenge 2020 he provides an opportunity to school
students to design explore and innovate in making worn satellites it is
organized by national children's science congress which of the statements given
above are correct this question is with reference to
national space challenge 2020 which was held in December 2019 and Jan 20 2016
for school students who are studying 8th to 12th standard all over India it gave
opportunity to students to design explore and innovate in making their own
satellites a basic guidance will be extended by national design Research
Forum and another organization space gives India to all students after
receiving the basic guidance students are challenged to design a small payload
instrument as an experiment to near space near space refers to may be an
altitude of around some 20 kilometer or about 20 kilometer like that not
certainly to outer space the finished payloads will be launched into near
space in a high-altitude balloon these high-altitude balloons they can reach
altitudes when left freely in open space because they are filled with either
helium or hydrogen as both these gases are lighter than air in the atmosphere
in national space challenge 2020 helium balloons were used to lift the payload
these balloons reached up to 20 kilo meters the payload data was strictly and
given back to the concerned competitors or teams for further study in this
context it is important for us to know about national design Research Forum
say it is an autonomous form of institution of Engineers it is
operational since 1969 and 2019 was the 50th annual this organization this forum
it promotes research design development production
and innovation through collaborative efforts national space challenge was
launched to mark the golden jubilee year of national design Research Forum and
the centenary year of institution of Engineers the institution of Engineers
is a statutory body to promote and advance Engineering and Technology in
our country it was established in 1920 it is recognized as scientific and
industrial research organization by Ministry of Science and Technology it
has its headquarters in Kolkata see zero or scientific industrial research
organization is a recognition under Department of scientific
Industrial Research in ministry of science and technology by this
recognition the aim is to promote the activities in the area of scientific and
industry research and design and development of indigenous technology so
as to achieve technological self-reliance and to minimize foreign
imports are foreign inputs and space gives India as an organization that is
working to create a young scientist for the country
it creates international experimental learning for students in the field of
science technology art and culture now in this question first statement is
correct as this challenge provides an opportunity to school students to design
explore and innovate in making more satellites however the second statement
is incorrect because it is not honest by national children's science congress
rather it is organized by national design Research Forum of Indian
Institute of Engineers along with space kids India national children's science
congress also called as children science congress is a flagship program of
national council for science and technology communication this national
council it functions under Department of Science and Technology of Thornwood of
India so here only the first statement is correct correct answer option here
one only now let us move on to next question consider the following
statements regarding the blue dot netbook it will bring together
government's private sector and other organizations behind a set of
high-quality global infrastructure development standards India along with
US Japan and Australia is a founding member see blue dot network in this
initiative of three countries United States Japan and Australia in other
words we can say that it is an initiative of our three quad partners it
was launched in number 2019 at indo-pacific Business Forum in Bangkok
this initiative it certifies infrastructure projects which
demonstrate and upholds global infrastructure principles what are these
principles these principles are you know principles with respect to quality
infrastructure investment principles on governance principles with respect to
environment standards and transparency in execution operation and maintenance
of project this certification by this net
book it will serve as a globally recognized symbol of approval for major
infrastructure projects so that people will know that these are projects which
has received this certification meaning that these projects are sustainable and
not exploited these words sustainable and not exploitative or kind of directed
at the belt and Road initiative of China as the belt will wrote initiative of
China suffered from various criticism related to lack of transparency burden
of repaying of debts by various countries and violating environment
standards and this blue dot network is believed to be a counter mechanism to
belt and Road initiative so this initiative it aligns with g20 principles
for quality infrastructure investment particularly on governance environment
standards and transparency and this network leads to invite not only
government's but also private sector and other organizations to align with
high-quality noble infrastructure development standards now coming to the
position of India India is not a member to this network in the recent visit of
US President to India India was invited to join this network an official
decision has not been taken yet and we know already that India has not joined
BR a initiative of China though invited and it is because the project's seatback
Corridor passes through India still the three the Pakistan Occupied Kashmir so
in this question first statement is correct second statement is incorrect
because India is not a member so correct answer option a1 only now let us move on
to next West consider the following statements
regarding Sita Sita is extinct in their natural habitats in India at present
cheetahs are spread across North America Australia Africa and India in their
natural habitat which of the statements given above are correct Sita was in news in January 2020 and
also in March 2020 with reference to introducing African Sita's in India see
Sita is one of the big cat species globally there are two subspecies
Asiatic Sita and African Sita one hundred years ago there were around one
lakh cheetahs in the world but today the number has dropped to around 7,000 most
them in Africa and around some 40 to 50 Neera and because of hunting activities
during the colonial period and also because of habitat reduction cheetah in
India has become extinct as early as in 1952 Press Information
Bureau says we could not spot cheetah in India after 1967 and a 2010 report of
Ministry of Environment forests and climate change it states that Sita is
the only mammal that has become extinct in independent India so in the recent
decades government and conservationists were trying to either translocate Sita
from Iran to India or to introduce African Sita to India initially we asked
Iran to translocate a live pair of Sita as Iran holds the last natural habitat
of Asiatic cheetahs but it is reported that in return
Iran asked for a pair of Asiatic Lion Howard the plant to reintroduce Asiatic
cheetahs in India from Iran was kept on hold because of lack of consensus in
giving Asiatic Lion to Iran now in the recent years Government of India has
been planning to introduce African seeta's into India so African Sita never
existed in India and therefore it is a non-native species to India and in
African Sita there are two categories based on geographical location what is
north east african Sita then south east african Sita in January this year
Supreme Court has allowed the central government to introduce South African
cheetahs from Namibia into suitable habitats in our country the wildlife
Institute of India has shortlisted three sites sagar area and rajasthan Kuna Pol
Pot Wildlife Sanctuary in multiple dish and also Nora dahi sanctuary multiple
tease these sites were prescribed as possible habitats for the introduction
of African Sita actually Supreme Court allowed to introduce African cheetah
into kuno pulp or Wildlife Sanctuary or any other part of India after detailed
study the conservation status of cheetah has been given here for your reference
note that it is the scheduled own protected animal and the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972 now coming to the Questor first statement is correct yes
cheetah is extinct in their match habitants in India second statement is
incorrect because right now if you see cheetahs are spread across Africa and
Asia in Asia that is found only in Iran in their natural habitat so only the
first statement is correct correct answer option a11 only now let us move
on to next question consider the following they have given
MSM importance and objectives they are asking which of the pair's given above
are correctly matched Samad on a digital platform to connect
job seekers and recruiters and mustn't miss someone for empowering a machinist
directly register their cases relating to delayed payments you mustn't miss
some park to monitor the implementation of public procurement policy of famous
Emmys first let us see a Muslim is Samad on some of them here refers to an
understanding that by facilitating quick settlement of disputes ensuring peace to
micro and small enterprises see this MSM is amadon is supported by which MSM
means are empowered to directly register their cases by filing online application
these are cases related to delayed payments against buyer of goods or buyer
of services see micro small and medium enterprise Development Act 2006 it has
provisions of delayed payment to micro and small enterprises the state
governments are empowered to establish a council called us micro and small
enterprises facilitation council the purpose of this council is to settle
disputes on getting references with respect to delayed payments under a
Muslim is Samad important the online application will be viewed by concerned
council and these will also be visible to concerned central ministries
Department central public sector enterprises state governments etc so as
to carry out proactive actions now let us come to MSM be some park some park in
Hindi it means to connect to contact see it is a digital platform that connects
job seekers and recruiters it bridges the gap between recruiters and job
seekers here when we say job seekers it refer to passed out ladies or students
of MS and meet technology centres now what are these MSME technology centres
see these are centers established by Ministry of micro small and medium
enterprises so as to provide right stimulus for the growth of MSM easing or
thank you these centres they conduct various
courses training programmes so as to provide workforce for the industry and
it also plays a very important role in skill enhancement of trainees trainees
here's the range from persons who drop out from schools and up to the level of
M Tech M asam is Sam Park is significant because unlike major
corporates MSME suffer because they could not afford to have a well-defined
recruitment processes particularly with the national reach it is a challenge for
them so this MSM is some park is helpful in
this juncture for MSM is and also for jobseekers now let's come to a Muslim is
someone see this portal is to monitor implementation of public procurement
policy for MSM is see the public procurement policy for micro and small
enterprises order 2012 it mandates every central ministry central department
central public sector undertaking to sit an annual target for procuring from
micro and small enterprises sector this target has to be set at the beginning of
the year the order mandates these ministries to set a goal like this to
attain the objective that out of total annual purchases a minimum of 25 percent
shall be from the products of services produced or rendered by micro and small
enterprises here we can find that MSM is amadon is wrongly matched digital
platform to connect job seekers and recruiters is MSM be some back none of
them are correctly missed here so the correct answer is option D none now
let's more – next question Polly wish some time Sina news is
related to a scheme of Ministry of Environment forest and climate change to
promote sustainable development in metro cities an initiative of Ministry of
human resources and development and inner scope to create an awareness of
environment among schoolchildren an NGO working for the protection and
conservation of Environment a single window integrated system for environment
forests wildlife and CR is at clearances c / d which it stands for proactive and
responsive facilitation by interactive virtuous and environmental single window
hubba / which translates to environment in english it's a web-based portal that
is developed for online submission of proposals seeking clearances with
respect to environment forests wildlife and postal regulations ohms and this
portal also enables monitoring of these proposals that see clearances as well
the portal is said to have enhanced the efficiency transparency in
and ability in terms of clearance processes so the correct answer for this
question is option D a single window integrated system for environment
forests while different CRS ed clearances now let's move on to next
questions consider the following statements
regarding medical termination of pregnancy at 1971 medical termination is
allowed under normal circumstances if the maximum length of pregnancy is 24
means that explicitly provides for the prohibition of sex selection before our
after consumption which of the statements given above are correct medical termination of pregnancy Act of
1971 was in news in January as cabinet approved an amendment bill to be
introduced in Lok Sabha so as to amend few provisions of 1971 principle
legislation the amendment bill was introduced in Lok Sabha in the first
week of March and it was passed recently on 17th March 2020 here we'll see few
provisions of M TP act 1971 and the changes proposed by the amendment will
see the termination of pregnancy as per this legislation is based on opinions of
registered medical practitioners the length of pregnancy varies with respect
to number of registered medical practitioners who has to give opinion
that continuance of pregnancy would involve risk to the life of pregnant
women or it will constitute grave injury to the physical health of pregnant women
or it also includes grave injury to the mental health of pregnant women and if
the opinion is that there is a substantial risk that if the child bonds
he or she will suffer physical or mental abnormalities to be seriously
handicapped that categorically mentions that the anguish caused by unwanted
pregnancy may be presumed to constitute a grave injury to the mental health of
pregnant women so if a woman becomes pregnant because of failure and
contraception then the anguish cost will constitute a grave injury to the mental
health now for a single medical practitioner to give opinion to
terminate pregnancy then the length of pregnancy should not be more than 12
weeks this number is now proposed to be increased from not more than 12 weeks to
not more than 20 weeks then what if the length of pregnancy is more than 12
weeks but not more than 20 weeks as per 1971 legislation here pregnancy can be
medically terminated but based on the opening of at least two registered
medical practices now the amendment bill proposes to increase this length to more
than 20 weeks but not more than 24 weeks and to terminate the pregnancy of a
woman who has not attained the age of 18 years or for the termination of
pregnancy of a mentally ill person consent of Guardian is required for all
other women to terminate pregnancy consent of the pregnant woman is
required now in one case the length of pregnancy and the opinion of at least
two registered medical practitioners can be waived these conditions will not
apply to the termination of pregnancy by a registered medical practitioner if it
was carried out for the immediate necessity to save the life of pregnant
woman now along with this provision in the principal Act the amendment proposes
to add one more provision to relax the conditions on length of pregnancy it
states that the length of pregnancy shall not apply through termination of
pregnancy if such termination is necessary
damn masses of a substantial fetal abnormalities these are substantial
fetal abnormalities diagnosed by a Medical Board constituted by appropriate
state and unitary godness even this medical board is also a proposal made in
the amendment it is not in the principal act and this medical board should have a
gynecologist a pediatrician a radiologist or so knowledge is necessary
in addition to these facts the amendment bill also
protects the privacy of human who has undergone pregnancy termination it
states that a registered medical practitioner should not reveal the name
and other particulars of the woman to any person not authorized by law now
let's come to the question first statement is incorrect because as of no
medical termination is allowed under normal circumstances if the maximum
length of pregnancy is not more than 20 weeks the second statement is also
incorrect because this legislation does not deal with prohibition of sex
selection sex selection and the regulation of use of prenatal diagnostic
techniques these are powered exclusively in the pre consumption and prenatal
diagnostic techniques prohibition of sex selection Act of 1990 for both the
statements are incorrect therefore the correct answer is option B neither one
not B now let us move on to next question consider the following
statements about the public-private partnership in terms of road projects in
India part of the project cost is to be provided by the government as
construction support and the remaining part will be given as annuity payments
over a specified period to the developer revenue collection is not the
responsibility of the private developer which of the below PPP models best
describe both the above statements build-operate-transfer toll build
operate transfer annuity engineering procurement construction hybrid annuity
model see in the case of engineering procurement construction model the
government pays the private players to develop the project in terms of roads
the National Highways Authority of India pays the private player to develop a
road network or to lay roots after leg road for the given money the private
player has no role in the ownership of the roar no role in the collection of
toll these things are taken care by the government so other than laying roads or
the construction of roads the private player has no active role in this model
but when we come to build operate transfer morning.he a private place have
active role because the private player has three roles
one building the roads or the project using its small financial arrangements
then operating the project and also maintaining the bill
the project for a specified number of years say some 15 to 20 years after this
number of years or after operating for this number of years then the build
property or the road ownership will be transferred to the government so here
the private player arranges all the finances for the project but after the
completion of the project that is during the operation of project the private
player may collect toll from the users or the government will pay a fixed set
amount to the developer as yearly payment for a specified number of years
this annual fixed payment is also called as annuity payments so the annuity
arrangement is known as Bo t annuity and the toll collection arrangement is
called as Bo teto so in this case in vivo t toll
raising revenue through toll becomes the risk of the developer whereas in case of
Bo T annuity the toll revenue risk is taken care by the government while the
private player is paid a fixed annuity now let's come to hybrid annuity model
the name says hybrid model so it is a mixture of two models EPC model and the
Ooty model the responsibility of design implementation operation and maintenance
is given to private developer and during construction government will give over
40 percent or 60 percent of the total project cost to the developer this
financed from the government will be released in parts or in installments and
these are linked to completion of milestones the remaining part of the
project cost is erased by the developer in the form of equity or commercial debt
once the project is completed the government will repay the financial
investment made by the developer in some period of years so what will happen the
government pays completely but not in a single transfer of money so once the
project is completed the ownership is with the government so the revenue risk
is not on the part of developer rather the risk is on the government and this
model gained recognition because it spreads the risk between the developers
and the government and it is reported that private sector is more interested
in this kind of public-private partnership because of reduced revenues
and increased support from the government so the correct answer for
this question is option D hybrid annuity model now let us move on to next
question Bheema corrigan sometimes seen in news
related to a battle fought between Marathas and British East India Company
in the 19th century the birthplace of dr.

Bhimrao Ramsey Ambedkar a battle
fought between Peshwa led Marathas and Dalit dominated Mughals series of
plundering raids by the Afghan ruler Ahmed Shah Abdali so this question is
based on Pema corrigan incident and anglo-maratha war we know that Maratha
Kingdom was founded by Chatrapathi Shivaji in the 17th century with regard
as its capital Shivaji was a contra Prairie of Mughal ruler or aggressive
because of their able administration Shivaji and successors of Maratha
Kingdom they were able to expand their territory the Peshwas were also known as
prime ministers they ruled they expanded territory which was called as the
Maratha Confederacy with the local chiefs and by the end of 1760 Maratha
Kingdom emerged as one of the strong kingdoms with Pune as his capital in
1761 Third Battle of Panipat took place Marathas suffered a deadly blow from the
Afghan invader Ahmed Shah Abdali from this point some historians say that the
kingdom never recovered to the full potential and the hopes of Maratha
Empire to become an All India Empire or shaken now let's see briefly about the
three anglo-maratha wars that were fought between 1775 and 1818 see these
wars were fought between British East India Company and Maratha Confederacy
the reasons for these was you know growing interference of British in the
internal matters of Maratha Confederacy and the greed of British to expand their
territory in India and also to check the power of Marathas the first
anglo-maratha war was fought between 1775 and 1783 and it came to an end with
Treaty of Salva in 1782 there is no clear with tree either for
Marathas or from British but what happened in second anglo-maratha war in
eighteen not three to eighteen not five was that Marathas lost majority of their
territory to British and because of this British were able to gain Orissa and
territories north of M&R River in the third and the final anglo-maratha war
British East India Company won the battle and the pace was removed now this
third anglo-maratha important in the context of Bheema
Goregaon village this is because on 1st January 1880 forces of Peshwa and
British East India Company fought in this village on the banks of Bhima River
the British Army had the primarily Dalit soldiers whereas the Peshwa me was of
other caste known for inflicting hardships on persons belonging to the
lit community and this Bhima Goregaon battle was fought as part of third
anglo-maratha war the result of this battle at this villages that the dalek
dominated British troops defeated the page 4 army and to commemorate the
victory every trip Allah Corrigan ransom RJ's thong was built in Bhima Borean
this ransom was built primarily not to commemorate the victory of British but
to commemorate a victory against injustice is perpetuated by dominant
castes and the year 2018 recently marked the 200th anniversary of this battle at
Bhima Oregon so this is about the Battle of Pema Corrigan and present incidents
with respect to this event now coming to the question the correct answer is
option EA Bhima Corrigan is related to a battle fought between Marathas and
British East India Company in the 19th century
now the birthplace of doctor Bhima Rao Ambedkar is in a place called Maheu
enmity village he was born on 14th April 1891 no it's more to next question
consider the following statements regarding formal signs compass it was
organized as a part of Indian Science Congress it was conducted for the first
time in Indian Science Congress in 2020 now both the statements are correct
therefore the correct answer is option C both one and two C Pharma Science
Congress was inaugurated for the first time in the hundred and seventh Indian
Science Congress which was held in jan 20 2008 highlights the importance of
innovations carried out by farmers and the scientific validity of these
innovations more than hundred innovative farmers have participated in this former
science congress and they have showcased their products now in this congress the
secretary of Department of cultural research and education has
announced setting up a farmer's Innovation Fund and Varmus Innovation
Centers this will be helpful to propagate innovations by farmers and
also to scientifically validate their innovations now Indian Science Congress
is organized annually by Indian Science Congress Association now it's a
professional body under Department of Science and Technology of Ministry of
Science and Technology the very first meeting of the Congress was held in
January 1914 at the premises of Asiatic Society Calcutta see this Congress is an
initiative of two British chemists professor Simonson and McMahon now this
year we had 107 Indian Science Congress with the theme Science and Technology
Rural Development now let us move on to next quest
this question is with reference to state energy efficiency index 2019 two
statements are given they're asking which of the statements given a more
incorrect it was developed by bureau of energy
efficiency in association with alliance foreign energy efficiency economy
Haryana Kerala and Karnataka and the front-runner category see the state
energy efficiency index was released in the month of January 2020 so in this
context it is important for us to know about this index main points and
findings of this index see this index it tracks the progress of energy efficiency
initiatives in states and union territories based on more than 90
significant indicators it was developed by bureau of energy efficiency in
association with alliance for energy efficiency economy it calls
Seto's such as buildings industry municipalities transport agriculture and
distributing companies and other sectors some of the indicators included the
recent index was adoption of energy conservation Building Code energy
efficiency in your muscle meat clusters etc so this index it helps to track the
progress in managing the energy footprint at the level of states and
also at the national level based on the scores obtained and also based on
aggregated total primary energy supply which is required to meet the state's
actual energy demand states have been grouped into four categories these
categories are frontrunners achievers contenders aspirants the top performance
States for 2019 are Haryana Kerala and Karnataka but they are not in the
front-runner category but in the achiever category in the aspirin groups
we can find states like mana poor in Jharkhand Rajasthan so none of the
states qualified in to frontrunner category it means that we have to do a
lot at the level of states to realize energy savings from energy efficiency
now coming to Bureau of energy efficiency it was set up in 2002 and
their section 3 of energy conservation Act of 2001 therefore it is a statutory
body it helps in developing policies and strategies with the primary objective of
reducing energy intensity of Indian economy the Alliance for energy
efficient economy was launched in 2008 it is a industry led membership based
not for profit organization it drives energy
efficiency markets and policies in our country the objective is to make an
energy efficient India and to transform India into a global leader in the field
of energy efficiency now coming to the question first statement is correct
second statement is incorrect none of the states or in frontrunner category
Haryana Kerala and Karnataka an achiever chemically and they are top performers
with this matter in 2090 question asks for incorrect statement only statement
tools incorrect correct answer option B to only now let us move on to next
question you Lu declaration sometimes C Daniels is related to climate change
mitigation adopted in 24th CEO P of UNFCCC upholding women rights by you and
women protection and promotion of linguistic diversity elimination of
tuberculosis by 2050 see you Lu Proclamation or you know declaration it
was adopted at the first world language resources protection conference this
conference was jointly organized by the government of China and inner scope in
Changsha China in the year 2018 this declaration or Proclamation it is with
respect to protecting and promoting linguistic diversity in the world and
this declaration is considered as a milestone for the protection of world's
language resources it recognizes that protection and promotion of linguistic
diversity is very important and crucial for the achievement of sustainable
development goals and it also stated that it is essential to combine the
protection and promotion of linguistic diversity with the development of
science and technology and in this context with reference to
languages we should know that last year that is 2019 has been declared by the
United Nations General Assembly as the UN International Year of indigenous
languages declaration of an international year for the indigenous
languages raises awareness of this topic at the global level and also mobilizes
different stakeholders for coordinated action so the correct answer for this
question is option C protection and promotion of linguistic diversity
meanwhile let us also see something related to Indian quality particularly
eighth schedule Indian Constitution we have article 351
it states that it shall be the duty of Union to promote the spread of Indian
language so that Hindi may serve as a medium of expression for all elements of
composite culture of India it states that Hindi needs to be
enriched how by absorbing certain form styles and expressions that are used in
Hindustani and in other languages of India that are specified in the eighth
schedule to enrich Hindi use the languages that are specified in eighth
schedule so article 351 is to promote the progress in use of Hindi and for its
enrichment however in 1968 a resolution was adopted
in the Parliament called as the official language resolution of 1968 and as per
this resolution in the interest of educational advancement and cultural
advancement of the country the Government of India should make
necessary measures for the comprehensive full development of languages mentioned
in the eighth schedule and as per this resolution all the languages included in
8th schedule and English shall be permitted as alternative media for all
India and higher Central Services examinations
however after attaining the views of OPEC on the future scheme of
examinations and the procedural aspects on the timing so at present if you see
there are 22 languages in 8 schedule the list has been given here for your
reference in 2017 Ministry of Home Affairs reported that there are demands
for including 38 more languages invade schedule of Indian Constitution one such
language is true which was in news in the month of John 20:22 Lu is said to
have a greater number of speakers than Sanskrit and mani Puri which are 8
scheduled languages despite to lose spoken by more members it is still not
included in schedule 8 that was the news that appeared in John 2020 now the 25th
Conference of parties of United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
was held in Madrid in Spain under the presidency of government of chile and
with the logistic support from the government of Spain
so here the correct answer is option C now let us move on to next question
which of the following correctly describes
new Mosul neo microscopic animals with long plump bodies and scrunch
stop it's a private Israeli space mission to moon a vaccine against a
leading cause of deadly childhood disease pneumonia and invasive species
causing destruction in Eastern Himalayas option here corresponds to
tardigrades or most piglets option B corresponds to bearish admission the
correct answer for this question is option C a vaccine against a leading
cause of deadly childhood disease pneumonia the leading cause of this
disease what we are here referring is pneumococcus bacterium we know that
pneumonia is a infection in one or both sides of the lungs that might be caused
stated by bacteria or virus or fungal infection but this vaccine is effective
against pneumococcus bacterium which is a leading cause of childhood pneumonia
this vaccine has been developed by a collaboration between saram Institute of
India Private Limited and an agency called path with funding from Bill &
Melinda Gates Foundation so this vaccine is expected to provide
protection for children and the vaccine will be more affordable particularly in
low and middle income countries it was in news acid at sued pre-qualification
by World Health Organization that means the whu-oh has given a certification
that this newly developed vaccine meets the global standards of vaccination
against pneumonia here when we say standards it refers to quality safety
and efficacy of vaccine when it comes to pneumonia
now the speciality of pre-qualification by W who chose that it allows new muscle
to be procured by United Nations agencies and gávea names and when we say
gabions it stands for Global Alliance for
vaccines and immunization cervix in Aline's this international end started
in the year 2000 with the objective to improve access among children who are
living in world's poorest countries to new and underused vaccines now in this
context let us also see about a platformer a network called as
electronic vaccine intelligence network see it is implemented in India by Union
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with United Nations
Development Programme this electronic wind Network it digitizes vaccine stops
and monitors the storage temperature by installing temperature lowers it aims
to support garments Universal immunization program by supporting in
this manner where it can provide real-time information on vaccine stocks
and vaccine flows and also on storage temperatures across all coaching points
now one of the achievements of this network is that it has achieved 80%
reduction in instances of vaccine going out of stock and it also ensured
improved availability of adequate and needed universal immunization program
vaccines to all targeted children and pregnant women so this is with respect
to electronic vaccine intelligence network implemented by UNDP and Union
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare the correct answer for this question is
option C now let us move on to next question
consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India
the Constitution of India has explicit provisions regarding preventive
detention the maximum period for which a person can be detained without obtaining
the opinion of an adversary Buddhist three months which of the statements
given above our current C article 22 of Indian Constitution talks about punitive
detention and preventive detention so the first statement is correct it
explicitly has provisions on preventive detention and preventive detention is to
detain a person as a precautionary measure to prevent him from committing
an offense and according to article 22 the maximum period
a person can be detained without obtaining opinion of an adversary voters
three months it was reduced to two months by 44th constitutional amendment
Act of 1978 however this particular provision has
not yet been brought into force and therefore the original provision of
three months is still in force so both the statements are correct
correct answer is option C both one and two we may expect a question like this
because we have been hearing about detention legislation such as Jammu and
Kashmir Public Safety Act the National Security Act either we may expect a
question from those two legislations or we may expect
from the Constitution of India now let us move on to next twister
consider the following statements India economic summit 2019 was organized by
the Government of India in partnership with the World Economic Forum World
Economic Forum releases global competitiveness report which of the
statements given above are correct so this question is with reference to the
33rd India economic summit which was conducted on a turbo 3rd and 4th of 2019
organised jointly by World Economic Forum Union Ministry of Commerce and
Industry and Confederation of Indian Industry the theme of this summit was
generating for India strengthening South Asia impacting the world so focus was on
South they shared this summit now we should note that there is a very
important project of World Economic Forum in improving accessibility to
health care project is titled as medicines from the sky the project aims
to use drones for delivery of medicines and a pilot project in this relation is
to begin in 2020 the government of Telangana in collaboration with Apollo
Hospitals and the World Economic Forum has formalized a pilot project for this
purpose and it aims to use drones to increase the access to healthcare for
communities across the state of Telangana see coming to World Economic
Forum it is International Organization for public-private cooperation
it was established way back in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation it is
headquartered in Geneva Switzerland it is independent impartial and not tied to
any special interests its primary focus is on engaging leaders in business
policy politics academic and other aspects of society so as to shape global
agenda regional or industry agendas more importantly for our examination purposes
it releases reports Global Competitiveness Report Global Gender Gap
report global risks report travel and tourism competitiveness report regional
risks for doing business report social mobility index in this question both the
statements are correct therefore the correct answer is option C
both one and two now let's move on to next question
consider the following statements with reference to Asian water bird senses it
is jointly coordinated by Bombay Natural History Society and wetlands
international in India it is a citizen science program that focuses on
monitoring the status of water birds and wetlands which of the statements given
above are correct see Asian water bird census it is a part of global water bird
monitoring program called as international water bird census now this
international water bird census is coordinated by wetlands international it
runs other regional programs in Africa Europe West Asia Neotropics and also the
Caribbean and we say Neotropics it refers to the region Central America
South America and it also includes tropical southern part of Mexico and the
Caribbean islands see the Asian water bird census it was initiated in the year
1987 in Indian subcontinent now it covers the region from Afghanistan to
Japan Southeast Asia and also Australia this census covers the entire East Asian
Australasian Flyway and a large part of Central Asian flavor and we say flyways
here these are flight paths used by birds while migrating from one place to
another throughout their annual cycle of migration the fly ways include breeding
areas migration stopovers non breeding sites as well of around eight flavors
India arranged state in Central Asian Flyway East Asian Australasian Flyway
and also with station East African flag and coming to India here Asian water
bird census is jointly coordinated by Bombay Natural History Society and
wetlands international now the objective of this census is to get information
annually about water bird populations at wetlands during non breeding period of
most species that is in the month of January it also aims to monitor yearly
basis the status and conditions of wetlands as well and it aims to
therefore encourage greater interest in water birds and wetlands among citizens
the census plays a very important role and the promotion and protection of
important bird and biodiversity areas from surf sites nationally protected
sites six cetera and it also helps in identifying and protecting new sites of
importance for water birds now coming to Bombay Natural History Society
it is a Wildlife Research Organisation one of the oldest scientific
organizations in India working for nature conservation since 1883 the
correct answer for this question is option C both one and two are correct
now let us move on to next question consider the following statements
regarding the foreign contribution Regulation Act 2010 and the foreign
contribution regulation rules 2011 that regulates the acceptance and utilization
of foreign contribution or foreign hospitality by certain individuals or
associations or companies all gift articles received for personal use are
exempted from the definition of foreign contribution which of the statements
given above are correct see the first statement is correct and it is the
objective of this legislation and this act also prohibits acceptance of foreign
contribution or acceptance of foreign hospitality for any activities that are
considered detrimental to the national interest the second statement is
incorrect it is because the room states that any article gifted to a person for
personal use if the market value in India on the date of exchange exceeds
one lakh rupees then it shall become a foreign contribution and recently on
30th January 2020 in exercise of powers under the FCRA Act 2010 Ministry of Home
Affairs published an order and according to this order all the institutions or
organizations constituted by a central legislation of state legislation or even
by an administrative or executive order of central government or any state
government or any institution that is totally warned by appropriate
governments and any of these institutions and if these institutions
are required to have a compass early audited by
Comptroller and Auditor General of India then these agencies are exempted from
foreign contribution regulation Act of 2010 now this exemption is reportedly
mainly benefiting the universities and other educational institutions to
leverage foreign contribution so here the correct answer is option a11
consider the following statements with reference to serious fraud investigation
of us two statements are given which of the statements given above are correct it is a statutory body under Ministry of
Corporate Affairs its purpose is to investigate corporate frauds assigned to
it by the central government see serious fraud investigation office was in news
in January in connection to arrest or apprehension of persons involved in
fraudulent activities in some companies some of the fraudulent activities
included filing false documents with various plans in this context it is
important for us to know about this office Government of India had set up a
committee on corporate governance under the chairmanship of Shri narae's Chandra
who is a former cabinet secretary this committee recommended to set up a
corporate Serious Fraud Office in the form of a multidisciplinary agency
having specialists from various relevant areas and also to include offices on the
basis of transfer of deputation or on special term contracts and based on this
recommendation and in the backdrop of stock market scams and also because of
failure of non banking companies leading to a huge financial loss to the public
the government decided to set up this office in the year 2003 at that time it
was established through a resolution it's a multidisciplinary organization to
investigate corporate frauds or frauds relating to companies it has
experts from various fields like financial sector capital market
accountancy forensic audit taxation ID etcetera though it was initially
established by a resolution of the government after the enactment of the
Companies Act it was given statute three status by section 211 of Companies Act
2013 it is a part of Ministry of Corporate Affairs and as per Section 212
one of the Companies Act 2013 on four situations
central government may assign investigation into the affairs of a
company to the Serious Fraud investigation office one on receipt of a
report from Registrar or inspector who carried out inspections
related to the books of accounts or other books and papers of a company then
on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company requesting an
investigation into its surface then in public interest then on the request of
any department of saint and all state government so central
government may have same investigation of matters related to a company even in
public interest the headquarters office CFO is in New Delhi now coming to the
question both the statements are correct correct answer option C both 1 & 2 it is
a nationwide campaign comprising of more than thousand two hundred NGOs and other
citizen leader organizations working together on electoral reforms improving
democracy and governance in India the above description best describes
Association of democratic reforms sweep program of Election Commission of India
India International Institute of democracy and election management
national election watch see Association of democratic reforms is not a network
it's not a campaign rather it is a nonpartisan non-governmental
organization working in the area of electoral and political reforms it was
established in August 99 by a group of professors from Indian Institute of
Management Ahmedabad it files litigations in courts in the area of
electoral and political reforms now coming to sweep portal of Election
Commission of India the full form of sweepers systematic waters education and
electoral participation program now it is the flagship program of Election
Commission of India for water education to spread water awareness and to promote
water literacy in India it was launched in 2009 since then they have been
working to prepare India selectors and equip them with basic knowledge related
to electoral process so the objective of this sweep program is to build a truly
participative democracy in India by encouraging all eligible citizens to
vote and to make an informed decision during elections and the India
International Institute of democracy and election management is advanced training
and resourcing of Election Commission of India this institute was established in
June 2011 it conducts various capacity enhancement programs and other training
programs for electoral offices and other administrative offices from various
countries so the correct answer for this question is national election watch this
campaign is active in almost all states India and it is doing election watches
for state assembly elections and lots of elections since the year 2002 so
nationwide network our campaign of more than thousand two hundred rangers and
citizen led organizations who are working together for electoral reforms
to improve democracy and governance in our country their main task is two
things one to collect data from the affidavits filed by contesting
candidates then to collect this information or to analyze this
information so that the waters will be able to understand it in an easy manner
so as to make and inform the decision this information about various
candidates will be circulated through media and other channels now let us move
on to next question consider the following statements with
reference to the wealth accounting and the valuation of ecosystem services
shortly coldest waves it is a World Bank led global partnership that aims to
promote sustainable development by ensuring that natural resources of
mainstreamed in development planning and national economic accounts it was
launched at COP 18 – the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change 2012 it
brings together a broad coalition to implement natural capital accounting
with internationally agreed standards which of the statements above are
correct see it's a world bank of lead global partnership to promote
sustainable development which is to be achieved by ensuring that natural
resources are mainstreamed in development planning and national
economic accounts it brings together a coalition of human agencies national
governments international Institute's NGOs and academics it was launched in
Japan at the 10th COP to the Convention on Biological
Diversity so you can eliminate options be and option D because both these
options a statement to is correct waves has now become a part of world
bank's umbrella initiative called as the global program for sustainability in
this global program it involves accounting for environmental risks and
opportunities and also valuing natural capital and
ecosystem services that is how much monetary value does a natural capital
command and waves is also a global partnership to implement natural capital
account a natural capital when we say it includes all resources minerals energy
timber agricultural and fisheries water etc it includes ecosystem services which
are air filtration water filtration flood protection by environment
protection from cyclones say for example man grew carbon storage protection
pollination of crops habitats for wildlife if we put monetary value for
all these things it means natural capital account and these natural
resources have to be integrated into development planning so strange for
genuine green economic growth along with these objectives it also aims to
establish a global platform for training and knowledge sharing it is funded by
European Commission and countries such as Denmark France Japan Norway UK etc
though it is a partnership with un agencies governments NGOs etc ten
countries were identified as core implementing partners in this way of
partnership and India is not so the correct answer for this question is
option C 1 & 3 only both 1st and 3rd statements are correct now you may think
how to ensure that the statement 2 is incorrect see for this you need not know
at what Co P of cvd the Wales partnership was merged all you have to
know at least is that it was launched at some Co P of Convention of Biological
Diversity if you have that knowledge you can eliminate two options functions B
and option T and increase the probability of marking the correct
answer to 50% COP 18 of UN Framework Convention on
Climate Change was held in Doha in Qatar with this we have come to the end of
seventh session of this target problem series for the month of January 2020 if
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